NCERT Class 10 Political Science Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Very Short Answer Questions

Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Who are insurgents?

Answer:

Insurgents are a group of people who fight against the government or army of their own country, usually because they want a different system of government.

Question 2. State any two examples of single-issue movements.

Answer:

Environmental movement (Tehri Dam Project) and Narmada Bachao Andolan (Movement).

Question 3. What popular political movement took place in Bolivia?

Answer:

Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. Under the pressure of the World Bank, the government gave up its control of municipal water supply.

The government sold these rights for the city of Cochabamba to a multinational company (MNC).

The Company increased the price of water by four times. This led to a spontaneous popular protest.

Question 4. When did Nepal become a Constitutional Monarchy? What was
its one great impact?

Answer:

Nepal became a Constitutional Monarchy in.1990. Its one great impact was that the power passed into the hands of the elected representatives of the people. The hierarchical king who was a real head became a Constitutional head of the state, a mere figurehead.

NCERT Class 10 Political Science Chapter 5 Popular Struggles And Movements Vsaqs

Question 5. What is NAPM? Mention its importance.

Answer:

NAPM —National Alliance for People’s Movement.

To bring various movements who are struggling with specific issues.

To coordinate the activities of a large number of people’s movements.

Question 6. What do you mean by Bolivia’s Water War?

Answer:

Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. Due to the pressure of the World Bank, the government sold the control of the water supply to a multinational company.

As the MNC increased the price of water by four times, people protested and it led to a popular movement which later came to be known as Bolivia’s Water War.

Question 7. What was Nepal’s second movement for democracy about?

Answer:

Nepal’s second movement for democracy was about making Nepal a democratic country by cutting the wings of the absolute monarch by taking all powers from the king and transferring them to the elected representatives of the people.

Question 8. What is a movement? What are its main features?

Answer:

A movement is a group of people who share the same beliefs or ideas or who are trying to achieve a particular aim.

  1. Their chief aim is not to attain power in the government but to work for the common objective or interest of the masses.
  2. These are loose organisations and their decision-making is very informal and flexible. They mostly rely on public participation.

Question 9. Write the principal concern of sectional interest groups.

Answer:

  1. The principal concern of sectional interest groups is the betterment and well-being of their members and not the society.
  2. For example, trade union worker’s aim is the benefit of the employees and not the whole society in general.

Question 10. What is BAMCEF? Mention its principal concern.

Answer:

Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (BAMCEF) is an organization made up of government employees. They campaign against caste discrimination and their main aim is to achieve social justice and social equality.

Question 11. Define election.

Answer:

An election is a process that ensures the government of the people through universal adult suffrage as per the tenure and terms enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

Question 12. What is a Ballot paper?

Answer:

A token that represents individual consent for the candidates under the electioneering process. Now it has been replaced by EVM (Electronic Voting Machine).

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation And The Indian Economy Very Short Answer Questions

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation And The Indian Economy Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. What does MNC stand for?

Answer:

MNC stands for Multinational Corporation.

Question 2. What is the investment made by the MNCs called?

Answer:

The investment made by the MNCs is called Foreign Investment.

Question 3. Name the process of integration of different countries.

Answer:

The process of integration of different countries is called Globalisation.

Question 4. Name two basic outcomes of MNCs.

Answer:

The basic outcomes of MNCs are competition, price war, and quality.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation And The Indian Economy Vsaqs

Question 5. What helps to create an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic market?

Answer:

Foreign trade helps to create an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic market.

Question 6. What does Foreign Trade increase?

Answer:

Foreign trade increases earnings.

Question 7. What stimulates Globalisation?

Answer:

Transportation stimulates Globalisation.

Question 8. What has facilitated the production of services across countries?

Answer:

Information and Communication Technology has facilitated the production of services across countries.

Question 9. State one example of Tax on import.

Answer:

Trade barrier

Question 10. What is not included in liberalization?

Answer:

The quota system is not included in liberalization.

Question 11. Define liberalisation.

Answer:

Liberalization of the economy means to free it from direct or physical control imposed by the government.

Question 12. What is globalisation?

Answer:

Integrating our economy with the world economy is called globalisation. Reduction in the economic gap between different nations is done by removing all restrictions between nations on the movement of goods, services, capital, technology, and labor.

Question 13. What is privatization?

Answer:

Privatization is defined as the transfer of ownership and control from the public sector to the private sector.

It means there is a greater role of private capital and enterprise in the functioning of an economy.

Question 14. State a positive aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.

Answer:

The strategy has helped India create a large industrial base and increase industrial production.

Question 15. State a negative aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.

Answer:

Laws formulated to regulate the private sector failed to reduce the concentration of economic power in the private sector. Corruption, inefficiency in work, and mismanagement were the common features in public enterprises.

Question 16. What is a “bilateral agreement”?

Answer:

When a country involves itself in trade with some- other country, there is an agreement between them. This agreement is called a bilateral agreement.

Question 17. What do you mean by export quota?

Answer:

For the protection of local consumers, the government restricts giving limit of export of some particular goods. This is called export quota.

Question 18. What do you mean by import quotas?

Answer:

For the protection of local manufacturers from the competition of producers from another country, the government imposes taxes on imported goods. This is called import quota.

Question 19. Define sustainable economic development.

Answer:

The development taking place without damaging the environment and the development in the present should not compromise on the needs of future generations. It is called sustainable development.

Question 20. State any two impacts of liberalization and globalization in India.

Answer:

The Impacts Of Liberalisation And Globalisation In India Are:

  1. There are better services in the communication sector such as telephone, color television, and other electronic goods.at low prices.
  2. Many food processing companies have taken over the market, such as Coca-Cola, Pepsi, and other food products.

Question 21. State the strategies under the new economic policy.

Answer:

The strategies under the new economic policy are:

  1. Liberalisation
  2. Privatization
  3. Globalization

Question 22. What do you understand by the liberalization of foreign trade?

Answer:

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government in terms of export and import is called liberalization. It includes lowering import duty, allowing certain products, etc.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Very Short Answer Questions

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Who is a consumer?

Answer:

A consumer is a person who buys goods and services.

Question 2. What is adulteration?

Answer:

Mixing cheap and raw materials

Question 3. What are the causes of consumer exploitation?

Answer:

Low literacy, ignorance, indifferent attitude towards duties.

Question 4. Which is a function of PDS?

Answer:

Control Hoarding, Control Prices, and Control overcharging

Question 5. What does COPRA stand for?

Answer:

Consumer Protection Act

Question 6. National Consumer Day is celebrated in India on ______

Answer:

24 December

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Vsaqs

Question 7. What, does COPRA propose to form?

Answer:

COPRA proposes the formation of a National Consumer Court, State Consumer Court, and District Consumer Court

Question 8. What does ISO stand for?

Answer:

ISO stands for International Organisation for Standardisation

Question 9. What is ‘consumer exploitation’?

Answer:

When a shopkeeper or a producer cheats a consumer by giving him poor quality or adulterated goods or charging a higher price for a commodity or a service, it is called consumer exploitation.

Question 10. When is the ‘World Consumers Rights Day’ celebrated?

Answer:

March 15.

Question 11. Mention the organizations which provide certification of standardization in India.

Answer:

  1. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
  2. AGMARK.

Question 12. Why was ‘Consumer Protection Act 1986’ enacted?

Answer:

This act was enacted to save the consumers from unscrupulous producers and dishonest traders.

Question 13. State the organization that sets international food standards.

Answer:

Codex Alimentarius Commission.

Question 14. State the organization that sets standards for products at the international level.

Answer:

International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO).

Question 15. Mention any factors that cause the exploitation of consumers.

Answer:

Factors Causing Exploitation Of Consumers Are:

  1. Limited information to the consumer about a product.
  2. Limited supplies of goods to increase the price.
  3. Limited competition and the possibility of manipulating prices.
  4. Low literacy of consumers. (Any two)

Question 16. What is the need for consumer awareness?

Answer:

The Need For Consumer Awareness Is Due To:

  1. The selfishness of manufacturers and traders can go to any extent.
  2. Some unscrupulous traders began to play with the health of the nation by indulging in adulteration of edible oils, milk, butter, ghee, spurious medicine, etc.

Question 17. What is adulteration?

Answer:

When some foreign substance, injurious to health, is mixed with any goods or natural product, it is called adulteration. This is a crime against humanity.

Question 18. Name the consumer courts at the district, state, and national levels.

Answer:

  1. At the district level – the District Forum.
  2. At the state level – the State Consumer Commission.
  3. At the national level – the National Consumer Commission.

Question 19. State the role of the Public Distribution System.

Answer:

PDS ensures the availability of essential commodities like wheat, rice, sugar, edible oils kerosene, etc.

The need for PDS was felt to check the force of supply and demand. PDS is also expected to strengthen measures to prevent hoarding, marketing, and overcharging by traders.

Question 20. Enumerate the measures to protect the rights of the consumers.

Answer:

  1. Legislative measures
  2. Administrative measures
  3. Technical measures.

Question 21. Find out the details of who provides Hallmark and ISO certification.
Answer:

In India, Hallmark is provided by BIS (Bureau of Indian. Standards) which is the national standards organization of India.

Hallmark is given to gold and silver jewelry in India. ISO (International Standards Organisation) is an international body with headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. It was founded in 1947.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development Very Short Answer Questions

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. What is economy?

Answer:

It is the sum of all economic activities of the people.

Question 2. Define economic activity.

Answer:

Economic activities are those activities that enable a person to earn income or give income to a person in return for his work.

Question 3. What are non-economic activities?

Answer:

Activities that do not give income are termed as non-economic activities.

Question 4. What rank does India have in the Global Ranking of HDD

Answer:

India has a ranking of 126th as of 2004.

Question 5. Why does each country calculate its per capita income in dollars?

Answer:

Because it is conveniently comparable internationally.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Popular Power Sharing Vsaqs

Question 6. Which state of India has the lowest infant mortality rate and the highest literacy ratio?

Answer:

Kerala has the lowest infant mortality rate and the highest literacy ratio.

Question 7. Define non-renewable resources.

Answer:

Those natural resources which are supposed to be exhausted after their regular use.

Question 8. What are renewable resources?

Answer:

These natural resources can be regularly recovered after their regular use.

Question 9. What is meant by infant mortality rate?

Answer:

It is an average number of deaths of infants for every thousand infants.

Question 10. Define literacy ratio.

Answer:

It is the percentage of people who can read or write in a country.

Question 11. Define P.D.S.

Answer:

It means the public distribution system of a country that provides necessary goods to the poor section of society at cheaper rates.

Question 12. Define environmental degradation.

Answer:

It refers to a rise in the level of pollution due to economic development.

Question 13. Define life expectancy.

Answer:

It is the average life of a person since his birth.

Question 14. What is meant by per capita income?

Answer:

It is the average of total national income during a year divided by the total population.

Question 15. Define Net State Domestic Product.

Answer:

It is the market price of final goods produced within the economy excluding the cost of depreciation.

Question 16. Define economic development.

Answer:

It is a long-run process whereby average income grows for a long period of time.

Question 17. Define sustainable development.

Answer: It means maintaining an economic development rate at present as well as for future generations.

Question 18. Distinguish between economic development and economic growth.

Answer:

Economic growth refers to a uniform rate of growth whereas economic development means growth of average per capita income for a long time.

Question 19. Write a common development goal for all.

Answer:

  1. Higher level of income.
  2. Better quality of life.

Question 20. What is development?

Answer:

A process by which one’s goals or aspirations for goals are fulfilled.

Question 21. What do you mean by the development of a country?

Answer:

It means an increase in average income accompanied by an improvement in the standard of life.

Question 22. What is national income?

Answer:

It is the sum of total goods and things produced in a year plus income from abroad.

Question 23. What is average income /per capita income?

Answer:

It is the total income of the country divided by its total population.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors Of The Indian Economy Very Short Answer Questions

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors Of The Indian Economy Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Define small and marginal farmers.

Answer:

It refers to those farmers who do not possess sufficient land to survive.

Question 2. Which sector of India contributes maximum to GDP?

Answer:

The tertiary sector of India contributes maximum to GDP.

Question 3. Does GDP include intermediate or final goods?

Answer:

Final goods only.

Question 4. Define the primary sector of an economy.

Answer:

It is a producing sector of the economy that depends upon natural resources and biological processes, also known as the farming sector.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors Of The Indian Economy Vsaqs

Question 5. What are economic activities?

Answer:

These are activities performed with the motive of earning income.

Question 6. When was MNREGA enacted in India1?

Answer:

MNREGA was enacted in 2005 in India.

Question 7. Write the full form of MNREGA.

Answer:

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Question 8. Which is the largest employment-providing sector of India?

Answer:

Primary sector or farming sector

Question 9. What is meant by underemployment?

Answer:

If refers to a situation, where the whole of the working class is not fully employed.

Question 10. Define disguised unemployment.

Answer:

It refers to a situation where workers do not get regular employment.

Question 11. Define the public sector.

Answer:

It refers to those manufacturing units, which are owned by the government and are run with welfare motive.

Question 12. What is meant by organized sector?

Answer:

A sector that provides regular employment under the Factories Act and provides security of employment.

Question 13. What are final goods?

Answer:

Goods that are ready for consumption or for sale are called final goods.

Question 14. Define intermediate goods.

Answer:

Goods which help in the further production of goods are known as intermediate goods.

Question 15. What is meant by the tertiary sector?

Answer:

It is that sector which smoothens the working of primary and secondary sectors like banking, insurance, transport, etc. It is also known as the service sector.

Question 16. What is meant by the secondary sector?

Answer:

It is that sector, of the economy that covers activities in which natural products are changed into other firms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity.

Question 17. What is meant by underemployment?

Answer:

It refers to a situation, where the whole of the working class is not fully employed.

Question 18. Define natural products.

Answer:

Those goods which are produced through biological processes such as farming products, dairy products, etc.

Question 19. Correct and arrange the important aspects for calculating GDP from this Jumble. To count, goods and services we add the numbers that are produced We count all those that were produced in the last five years. Since we shouldn’t leave anything we add up all these goods and services.

Answer:

Since we should not leave anything we add up all those goods and services. To correct goods and services we add the numbers that are produced. We count all those that were produced in five years.

Question 20. Imagine that you are the village head. In that capacity suggest some activities that you think should be taken up under this Act that would also increase the income of people. Discuss.

Answer:

In the capacity of a village head, the construction of a road connecting the village with the city should be taken up under this Act.

This activity would also increase the income of people as they will be employed in the construction activity. In addition to that, the city will become accessible to the village people.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money And Credit Very Short Answer Questions

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money And Credit Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. What is collateral?

Answer:

Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building vehicles, livestock, etc.) and is used as a guarantee to the lender until the loan is repaid.

Question 2. From where is the formal source of credit available?

Answer:

A formal source of credit is available through banks and cooperatives.

Question 3. What is the idea behind the Self-Help Groups?

Answer:

The basic idea behind the Self Help Groups is to organize the rural poor into self-help groups and collect their savings.

Question 4. What is the system of exchanging goods from goods called?

Answer:

The system of exchanging goods for goods is called the Barter System.

NCERT Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money And Credit Vsaqs

Question 5. Mention one main function of RBI.

Answer:

Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.

Question  6. Why do the banks keep a major portion of deposits?

Answer:

Banks keep a major portion of deposits to extend loans.

Question 7. Define double confidence of wants.

Or

What is a double coincidence of wants?

Answer:

When both parties agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities, it is known as a double coincidence of wants.

Question 8. What do you mean by terms of credit?

Answer:

Terms of credit mean interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment.

Question 9. What does credit refer to?

Answer:

Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payments with interest.

Question 10. What are the benefits of money?

Answer:

Money eliminates the double coincidence of wants. It acts as a common measure of value and acts as a standard of deferred payments.

Question 11. Why are demand deposits considered money?

Answer:

Demand deposits are considered as money because they can be withdrawn when required and the withdrawn money can be used for making payments. These can also be used as collateral for loans.

Question 12. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending?

Answer:

The collateral is a kind of surety, which the lender can hold on to. In case of the debtor fails to repay the loan, the lender can recover the same money by selling the collateral.

Question 13. Given that a large number of people in our country are poor, does it in any way affect their capacity to borrow?

Answer:

Credit is always given after properly assessing the repayment capacity of the borrower. Since poor people do not have repayment capacity, they are usually unable to get a loan; especially from the formal sector.

They get some loans from the informal sector but in that case, they often fall into a debt trap because of the very high rates of interest.

Question 14. List the various sources of credit in Son-pur.

Answer:

The Various Sources Of Credit In Sonpiir Are:

  1. Village money lenders
  2. Agricultural Traders
  3. Landowners acting as moneylenders
  4. Commercial Banks
  5. Krishak Cooperative Society

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Where would you expect to find the element with atomic number 18 in the periodic table?
Answer: An element with atomic number 18 will lie in the 18th group and the 3rd period of the periodic table

Question Who classified the elements based on fundamental properties of elements like atomic mass?
Answer: Mendeleev.

Question 3. An element X’ belongs to the second group of the periodic table. What is the formula of sodium chloride?
Answer: XCl2.

Question 4. State modern periodic law of classification of elements.
Answer: The properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.

Question 5. Name the elements present in the first period.
Answer: Hydrogen and Helium.

Read and Learn More CBSE Class 10 Science Very Short Answer Questions

Question 6. An element has the atomic number 16. To which group and period does it belong?
Answer:

K – 2

L – 8

M – 6

A(16) = 2, 8, 6

Period = 3rd

Group = 10 + 6

= 16.

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements

Question 7. Out of and K, which will have a stronger metallic character and why? 
Answer:

Potassium (K) will have a stronger metallic character than lithium (Li) because as we move from top to bottom in a group, the size increases, which increases the ease of liberation of electrons.

Question 8. Write the atomic number of two elements X’ and ‘Y’ having electronic configurations of 2, 8, 2 and 2, 8, 6 respectively.
Answer:

X -12(2 + 8 + 2)

Y- 16 (2 + 8 + 6)

Question 9. A metal ‘M’ belongs to the 13th group in the modern periodic table. Write the valency of the metal.
Answer:

The valency of the metal is 3.

Question 10. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine from a Dobereiner’s triad. The atomic masses of chlorine and iodine are 35.5 and 126.9 respectively. Predict the atomic mass of Bromine.
Answer:

Atomic mass = \(\frac{35.5+126.9}{2}\)

= \(\frac{162.4}{2}\)

= 81.2

Question 11. Find the atomic number of the element whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 5.
Answer:

Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 5

15 = no. of electrons.

Question 12. List any two properties of the element belonging to the first group of the modern periodic table.
Answer:

  1. Elements are monovalent.
  2. Elements are metal/electropositive.
  3. Elements form basic oxides, (any two)

Question 13. Write two reasons responsible for the late discovery of noble gases.
Answer:

They are less available in nature.

They do not react, i.e., inert.

Question 14. What are the names of group 1 and group 17 elements?
Answer:

  1. Group 1- Alkali metals
  2. Group 17- Halogens.

Question 15. The atomic numbers of 3 elements A, B, and C are 12, 18, and 20 respectively. State and give a reason for which 2 elements will show similar properties.
Answer:

A and C, as they belong to the same group, as they have the same number of valence electrons.

Question 16. Predict the maximum number of valence electrons possible for elements in the first period of the periodic table.
Answer: 2 (in Helium)

Question 17. How many vertical columns are there in the modern periodic table, and what are they called?
Answer:

18 vertical columns are present and they are called groups.

Question 18. Give the number of elements in the 2nd and 5th periods in the modern periodic table.
Answer:

2nd period- 8 elements

5th period- 18 elements

Question 19. Write the formula that determines the maximum number of electrons that the shell of an atom can accommodate.
Answer:

2n2, where W is some shells.

Question 20. Why was the system of classification of elements into triads not found suitable?
Answer:

Because all the elements discovered at that time could not be classified into triads.

Question 21. Which can gain electrons easily O or F?
Answer:

F can gain electrons more easily because it is smaller.

Question 22. Name any two pairs of elements that were adjusted by Newlands in the same slot.
Answer:

  1. Cobalt and Nickel
  2. Caesium and lanthanum

Question 23. Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of their atomic size. Ca, Mg, Be, Ba.
Answer:

Ba > Ca > Mg > Be

Question 24. What would be the nature of oxides formed by the elements on the right-hand side of the periodic table?
Answer: Acidic

Question 25. On what basis we can classify elements?
Answer: Similarity in properties.

Question 26. What was the earliest attempt to classify elements?
Answer: They were classified as metals and non-metals.

Question 27. What is a metalloid? Name any two of them.
Answer:  The element which shows some properties of both metals and non-metals is called a metalloid. Example: Silicon and Boron.

Question 28. Name any two elements which were discovered later after Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:  Gallium and germanium

Question 29. Which is smaller, Carbon or Nitrogen?
Answer: Nitrogen

Question 30. What is the place of metalloids in the periodic table?
Answer: In the middle.

Question 31. What did Mendeleev use the criteria in creating his periodic table?
Answer: 

The criteria used by Mendeleev to create his periodic table was a Periodic Law, as stated below:  “The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic masses”.

Question 32.

  1. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
  2. Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common?

Answer:

Yes, lithium, sodium, and potassium are similar because these contain one electron in their outermost shell. The atoms of helium and Neon have their outermost shell filled and are thus unreactive gases.

Question 33. In the Modern Periodic Table, which are the metals among the first ten elements?
Answer:  Li, and Be are metals.

Question 34. By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which one of the following elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristics? Ga Ge As Se Be
Answer:

As elements on the left side of the periodic table are more metallic, therefore, Beryllium (Be) has the maximum metallic character as it is found on the extreme left side of the periodic table.

Question 35. Why K is more reactive than Li?
Answer: K has a larger atomic size, therefore it can lose electrons due to less force of attraction between the nucleus and electrons.

Question 36. Write the formulae of chlorides of Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminium, the elements predicted by Mendeleev.
Answer: GeCl4, GaCl3.

Question 37. If an element is placed in group 14, what will be the formula and the nature of the bonding of its chloride?
Answer: XCl4; Covalent bonding.

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases And Salts Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases And Salts Very Short Question And Answer

Question 1. Name an acid-base indicator prepared at home.
Answer: Beetroot extract.

Question 2. What is aqua regia?
Answer: It is a mixture of Cone HC1 and Cone. HN03 in the ratio of 3: 1.

Question 3. What will happen to blue litmus when it is added to soda water?
Answer: It changes to red.

Question 4. Which acid and base are used in the formation of the following salts?

  1. CuSO4
  2. NaNO3

Answer:

  1. Cu(OH)2 and H2SO4
  2. NaOH and HNO3

Question 5. What are antacids? Explain their role in providing relief from stomachache.
Answer:

  1. Antacids are mild bases.
  2. Antacids neutralize the effect of extra acid produced in the stomach during indigestion and thus provide relief.

Question 6. Define indicators. Name two natural indicators obtained from plants.
Answer: Indicators are substances which give different colours in acidic or basic solutions. Natural indicators from plants are litmus and Vanilla extract.

Read and Learn More CBSE Class 10 Science Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases And Salts

Question 7. Make a distinction between metals and non-metals concerning the nature of their oxides.
Answer: Metal gives basic oxides and non-metal gives acidic oxides.

Question 8. What is the neutralisation reaction?
Answer: When the effect of base is nullified by an acid and vice versa, it is called a neutralisation reaction.

Question 9. How does the chloride of lime differ chemically from calcium chloride?
Answer: The chloride of lime is CaOCl2, while calcium chloride is CaCl2.

Question 10. What is meant by water of crystallisation in a substance? Explain with an example.
Answer: Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt,

Example: CuSO4.5H2O

Question 11. How does the change occur in the pH values of milk when it changes to curd? Axis.
Answer: When milk changes to curd, it becomes acidic due to the formation of lactic acid, Thus its pH value decreases and becomes less than 6.

Question 12. Why does 1 M HCl solution have a higher concentration of H+ ions than 1 M CH3COOH solution?
Answer: The HCl solution is a strong city and, therefore, ionises completely as compared to the CH3 COOH solution which is a weak acid. Due to complete ionisation, it contains a high concentration of H+ ions.

Question 13. What are olfactory indicators? 
Answer:  The substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media are called olfactory indicators.

Question 14. Which one of the following has the higher concentration of H+ ions? 1 M HCl or 1 M CH3COOH?
Answer: 1 M HCl has a higher concentration of H+ ions, being a strong acid, it ionises completely to furnish H+ ions.

Question 15. What effect does an increase in the concentration of H+(aq) in a solution have on the pH of the solution?
Answer:

The pH of a solution decreases with the increase in the concentration of H+(aq). It is so because pH is the negative logarithmic value of H+(aq) a solution. More are the H+(aq) in a solution, more is the acidity, and less is the pH value of that solution.

Question 16. Why is HCl a stronger acid than acetic acid?
Answer: On dissociation, HCl yields larger (H+) hydrogen ions for the same concentration as compared to acetic acid. So it is stronger than acetic acid.

Question 17. Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus. Give reasons.
Answer: H+ ions from HCl cannot ionise to give H+ ions in the absence of water. Acidic property like change in colour of litmus depends on the production of H+ ions, hence there is no colour change.

Question 18. How is the pH of a solution of an acid influenced when it is diluted?
Answer: On dilution, the concentration of hydrogen ions per unit volume decreases and hence pH of the solution increases. Since pH is the negative logarithmic value of the concentration of hydrogen ions.

Question 19. How will you test for the gas which is liberated when HCl acid reacts with an active metal?
Answer: When a burning candle is brought near the jar filled with hydrogen gas, it burns explosively with a pop sound.

Question 20. Which bases are called alkalies? Give an example of alkalies.
Answer:  Soluble bases are called alkalies,

Example: Sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Question 21. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between Sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid indicating the physical state ofthe reactants and the products.
Answer:

Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq)+ CO2(g) + H2O(l)

Question 22. What is meant by pH and pH in pH?
Answer: p in pH stands for potenz and H is for hydrogen.

Question 23. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of washing soda.
Answer:

  • Chemical name-Sodium carbonate
  • Chemical formula-Na2CO3.10H2O

Question 24. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (HO+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:

When a given amount of acid is added to water, on diluting, the concentration of hydronium ions decreases because there are present a fixed amount of hydronium ions (H3O+) per unit volume of the solution.

Question 25. How is the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) affected when an excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH) increases when the excess base (which also supplies OH ions) is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide.

Question 26. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and the pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of these is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer: Lower pH means higher H+ ion concentration. Thus, solution ‘A’ has more H+ ion concentration. Therefore, solution A is acidic as the pH is less than 7 and solution B is basic as the pH is more than 7.

Question 27. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Answer: More the H+(aq) ion concentration, the higher the acidic character of the solution

Question 28. Do the basic solution also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer: Basic solutions have H+(aq) ions. But they are lesser in number than OHions. Excess of OH(aq) ions counts for the basic character of basic solutions.

Question 29. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his field with quicklime(calcium oxide) slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Answer: Plants grow well in the pH range 6-8. So when soil becomes acidic, a farmer will do it. his fields with weak bases like quick lime or slaked lime.

Question 30. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Answer: The common name of the compound, CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.

Question 31. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
Answer: An aqueous solution of an acid contains charged particles which are responsible for the conduction of electricity.

Question 32. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Answer: Dry HCl gas does not generate H+ ions and does not act as acid. Hence, cannot change the colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 33. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer: Slaked lime [Ca(OH)2] or lime water on treatment with chlorine gives bleaching pow

Question 34. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:  Sodium carbonate is used for softening hard water.

Question 35. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does ?
Answer:  Rainwater contains ions of acids, so it conducts electricity, whereas there are no ions in distilled water.

Question 36. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:  Acids in water give hydronium ions, which are responsible for their acidic behaviour. But in the absence of water acids do not generate hydronium ions and thus do not show acidic behaviour.

Question 37. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Answer: The pH of milk falls below 6 as it turns into curd due to the formation of lactic acid during this process.

Question 38. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Answer: Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4.i H2O). On exposure to moisture absorbs moisture and becomes gypsum (CaSO4.i H2O which does not have the required setting property.

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals And Non-Metals Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals And Non-Metals Very Short Question And Answer

Question 1. What happens when copper reacts with zinc sulphate?
Answer: No reaction, because copper is less reactive than zinc.

Question 2. Write the composition of aqua-regia.
Answer: A mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 is the ratio 3: 1.

Question 3. Give the reason why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
Answer: Because copper is a better conductor of heat than steel.

Question 4. Name and write the symbol of a metal that exists in a liquid state.
Answer:  Mercury (Hg)

Question 5. What is the valency of silicon with atomic number 14?
Answer: 4

Question 6. A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a week in a bathroom. What could this green substance be?
Answer: Due to the formation of basic copper carbonate.

Read and Learn More CBSE Class 10 Science Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals And Non-Metals

Question 7. Name the metal which has a very low melting point and can melt with the heat of your palm.
Answer: Gallium

Question 8. Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity. Na, K, Cu, Ag
Answer: Na, K, Cu, Ag.

Question 9. Give the composition of the alloys-brass’ and ‘bronze’.
Answer:

Brass-Cu and Zn

Bronze-Cu and Tin

Question 10. An alloy has a low melting point and is, therefore, used for electrical fuse. Name the alloy and write its constituents.
Answer: Solder, Pb and Sn.

Question 11. What is the formula of rust?
Answer: Fe2O3.xH2O

Question 12. Name one metal and a non-metal found in a liquid state at room temperature.
Answer: Metal-mercury and Non-metal-bromine

Question 13. Name two metals which react with dil. HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.
Answer: Magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn).

Question 14. Why oxides of highly reactive metals cannot be reduced by carbon?
Answer: This is because these metals have more affinity for oxygen than carbon.

Question 15. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water but reacts with heated steam to produce hydrogen gas.
Answer: Iron (Fe), aluminium (Al) and zinc (Zn) do not react either with cold or hot water. They react with steam to form metal oxide and hydrogen,

Example:

3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)→ Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)

Question 16. Among the metals-sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name the metal which reacts with water only on boiling.
Answer: Magnesium

Question 17. What is formed when sodium absorbs moisture from air? Give equation also.
Answer: It forms sodium hydroxide.

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{Na}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{NaOH}+\mathrm{H}_2\)

Question 18. Why the sulphide and carbonate ores are converted into oxides?
Answer: It is because it is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphide and carbonates.

Question 19. Why do we use copper and aluminium wire for the transmission of electric current?
Answer: Because they are a good conductor of heat and electricity.

Question 20. Name two metals which have very low melting points.
Answer:

  1. Caesium
  2. Gallium

Question 21. Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which a non-lustrous.
Answer: Iodine is a non-metal which is lustrous. Iron is a metal which is non-lustrous.

Question 22. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction: Aluminium when heated in air. Write the name of the product.
Answer:

⇒ \(4 \mathrm{Al}+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow \underset{\text { (Aluminium oxide) }}{2 \mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3}\)

Question 23. Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state?
Answer: The movement of ions in the solid state is not possible due to their rigid structure.

Question 24. A non-metal X exists in two different forms, Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance, whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y, and Z.
Answer:

X Carbon Y = Diamond Z = Graphite.

Question 25. Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which is non-lustrous.
Answer: Iodine and Iron

Question 26. The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and iron react with air and water is an indication of their relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’. Is this statement true? Justify your answer with examples.
Answer: Yes. It is the most reactive. Sodium reacts with cold water, while magnesium reacts with hot water. Iron reacts only with steam.

Question 27.

  1. X+YSO4 → XSO4+ Y
  2. Y + XSO4 → No reaction

Out of the two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y, which is more reactive and why?
Answer:

‘X’ is more reactive than ‘Y’ because it displaces ‘Y’ from its salt solution.

Question 28. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it gives a base Y with the molecular formula XOH (Molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which easily catches fire. Identify X, Y, and Z.
Answer: X’ is Sodium, Y is Sodium hydroxide, and ‘Z’ is H2(g).

Question 29. What is an alloy? State the constituents of solder.
Answer:  An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more two metals, which have nearly the same atomic size. Solder consists of lead and tin.

Question 30. What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from among the following oxides:
Answer:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O

Question 31. What is 24-carat gold? How will you convert it into 18-carat gold?
Answer: 24-carat gold is pure gold. It is converted into 18-carat gold by adding 6 parts of Copper to 18 parts of gold, i.e., 75% Au and 25% Cu.

Question 32. Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in the process of extraction of metal from them?
Answer: It is easier to obtain metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphides and carbonates.

Question 33. Generally, when metals are treated with mineral acids, hydrogen gas is liberated but when metals (except Mn and Mg), are treated with HNO3, hydrogen is not liberated, why?
Answer: 
HNO3 is not only an acid, but it is also a strong oxidizing agent. It oxidizes the hydrogen formed into water, itself HNO3 is reduced to NO2 or N2O.

Question 34. An element forms an oxide, Al2O, which is acidic. Identify A as metal or non-metal.
Answer: Since an oxide of the element is acidic, therefore, I will be a non-metal.

Question 35. Give two examples of each of the metals that are good conductors and poor conductors of heat respectively.
Answer: Good conductors of heat-Silver, copper and aluminium Poor conductors of heat-Lead and mercury

Question 37. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Answer: Gold and Platinum

Question 36. Write two examples of each of the metals that are good conductors and poor conductors of heat respectively.
Answer: Good conductors of heat are copper and silver. Poor conductors of heat are lead and mercury.

Question 37. Name one metal and one non-metal that exist in a liquid state at room temperature. Also, name two metals having melting points less than 310 K (37°C).
Answer: Metal in the liquid state is mercury, and non-metal in the liquid state is bromine. Gallium (Ga) and Caesium (Cs) have melting points below 310 K.

Question 38. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will not.
Answer: Magnesium and zinc would displace hydrogen from dilute acids, whereas metals low in reactivity series like copper and silver will not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.

Question 39. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Answer: Rusting of iron can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanising, chrome painting, anodising or making alloys.

Question 40. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Answer: Acidic oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen.

Question 41. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Answer: Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil as it reacts vigorously with air to catch fire.

Question 42. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Answer: Metals which are below in the activity series like gold, silver, and platinum do not corrode easily.

Question 43. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution.  The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset, but after a futile argument, the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Answer: Aqua Regina mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid. in the ratio of 3: 1, since it dissolves gold.

Question 44. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
Answer: Iron (steel) reacts with hot water, but copper does not.

Question 45. What are the constituents of solder alloy? Which property of solder makes it suitable for welding electrical wires?
Answer: Solder is an alloy of lead (50%) and tin (50%). It has a lower melting point than lead, as well as tin. So it is suitable for welding electric wires.

CBSE Class 10 Science Very Short Answer Questions

CBSE Solutions For Class 10 Science

CBSE Class 10 Science Question and Answers