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CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India: Geographical Features Notes

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CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India: Geographical Features

Tndia is huge country having a variety of physical Lfeatures, climates, wildlife, resources, races languages and religions. With all its physical dimensions and varied characteristics, India is land of unity in diversity. It is now the most populous country in the world and the seventh largest in size after Russia, Canada, China, the USA, Brazil and Australia.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Geographical Features Notes

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Location And Extent

India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4’ N and 37°6′ N and longitudes 68°7′ E and 97°25′ E. The north-south extent of the mainland from Kashmir to Kanyakumari is about 3214 km, whereas the east-west extent from the Rann of Kutch to Arunachal Pradesh is about 2933 km.

  • The Tropic of Cancer passes almost through the middle of the country and divides it into two halves, the tropical zone in the south and sub-tropical in the north.
  • Lakshadweep off the western coast and the Andaman and Nicobar islands, located in the Bay of Bengal also form a part of India.
  • India is surrounded by waterbodies on three sides, i.e., the Bay of Bengal in the southeast, the Indian Ocean in the south and the Arabian Sea in the southwest, covering a coastline of about 6100 km.
  • The total coastline, including those of the islands, is about 7516 km. The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 million square km.
  • India’s total area accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world.
  • India lies strategically at the head of the Indian Ocean, wholly in the northern hemisphere and at the centre of the Eastern hemisphere.
  • Due to its strategic location, India commands the sea routes between Europe and Africa on the one hand, and Southeast Asia, Far East and the Oceania on the other.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Extent and Standard Meridian

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Neighbours

India is situated on the western fringe ofthe Indian Ocean. It lies midway between South East Asia and South West Asia.

  • India shares its land borders with Pakistan, China, Nepal and Bhutan in the north and Bangladesh and Myanmar in the east.
  • The island nation of Sri Lanka is located off the southern tip of the Indian peninsula. It is separated from India by the Palk Strait.
  • India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands share a maritime border with Thailand and Indonesia. To the south of Lakshadweep lies Maldives

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Political divisions States By UTs and their Capitals

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Political Divisions

India, a Union of States, is a sovereign, secular, Democratic Republic with a Parliamentary form of Government. It comprises 28 States and Eight Union Territories.

Delhi is the National Capital Territory of India.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 States and Union Territories

The Union Territories are administered by the President of India through an Administrator appointed by him/her.

  • The names of the States and Union Territories and their capitals are given in the table above.
  • In terms of size, Rajasthan is the largest State whereas Goa is the smallest state of India. Rajasthan is followed by Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Among the Union Territories, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal ranks first whereas Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea is the smallest.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Union Teritories

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India: Physical Divisions

India is a land of varied topography comprising high mountain ranges, mighty rivers, fertile plains, dense forests and plateaus.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 India Main Physical Features

It has five clearly defined physiographic divisions:

  1. The Himalayas
  2.  The Plains of Northern India
  3. The Peninsular Plateau
  4. The Coastal Plains;and
  5. The Islands

1. The Himalayas:

The northern mountain wall is known as the Himalayan Range. The Himalayas are young fold mountains consisting of three parallel ranges, which are clearly distinguished on the basis of their height.

The Himadri:

It is known as the Himadri because it remains covered with snow throughout the year.

  • It is also called the Great Himalayas or the Inner Himalayas.
  • It forms the northernmost part of the Himalayan range and is one of the world’s highest mountain ranges.
  • This range includes the world’s highest peak, Mt. Everest (8,848M). Other , peaks with heights over 8000 m include Makalu, Mansalu, Annapurna in Nepal; Nanga Parbat and Kanchenjunga in India
  • It also has some passes in Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim. It includes the Karakoram pass in Ladakh and the Nathu La in Sikkim.
  • It has a number of glaciers such as the Gangothri and the Yamunotri in Uttarakhand. These glaciers are the perennial source of water for the Ganga and Yamuna rivers, respectively
  • Sharda, Ghagra, Kosi and Gandak rivers originate from this range

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 The Himalayas

 The Himachal

This range is also known as the Himachal Himalayas or the Middle or Lesser Himalayas.

  • It runs parallel to the Himadri and lies to its south.
  • Doons lie between the Himachal and Shiwalik ranges. They are flat bottomed longitudinal valleys. Dehra Dun is one such valley.
  • This range has a vast vegetative cover. A number of peaks having elevation of more than 5,050 m are located in this range. They are covered with snow throughout the year.
  • Some of the important ranges in this region are the Pir Panjal, Dhaula Dhar, Mussoorie range, and Mahabharat range (Nepal).
  • Most of the hill stations in India lie in this range. They include Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital, Almora, Ranikhet, Chakrata ,Chail, etc.,
  • The valleys here include Kullu, Jammu and Srinagar

The Shiwalik Range:

  • It is also called the Outer Himalayas.
  • It is not a continuous range.
  • The slopes facing the subcontinent are
  • steep, while those facing north are gentle.
  • It is known by different names in different
  • places — Jammu hills in Jammu and Miri,
  • Aborand Mishmi hillsinArunachal Pradesh.
  • The average elevation is about 1000 m above sea level.

Some of the valleys that fall in this region include Udhampur in Jammu region and the Doon valleys.

Significance of the Himalayas

The Himalayas act as an effective climatic barrier by blocking the inflow of cold, dry air masses into northern India during winter, thus protecting northern India from severe cold in winters.

  • Himalayas also deflect the moisture-laden monsoon winds and cause the moist winds to bring rain to the North Indian plains and the Brahmaputra valley.
  • The glaciers in the Himalayas give rise to many perennial rivers which include Ganga, Yamuna, Sharda, Ghagra, Kosi, Gandak and Brahmaputra.
  • The Himalayan rivers form rapids and waterfalls and provide ideal conditions for the creation of reservoirs, which are utilised for the generation of hydroelectricity by constructing dams across the rivers.
  • The Himalayas form a defensive rampart of India against invasion by land.
  • The Himalayan scenery is among the most spectacular in the world. It attracts thousands of tourists from India and abroad. Most of the summer resorts, known as hill stations and a number of sacred shrines are located in the Himalayas.

The Himalayas are rich inforest resources. They yield good quality timber, soft and hard woods, paper pulp, resins, turpentine oil, various medicinal plants, etc.

  • The Himalayas Eire home to a wide variety ofwild animals like yaks, snow leopards, bears, red pandas, tigers, elephants, etc.
  • The Himalayas have rich reserves of important minerals. Copper, lead, zinc, bismuth, Eintimony, nickel, cobalt and tungsten Eire found in the eastern and western Himalayas of good quality is found in the Kashmir valley.
  • The Himalayas also have gold, silver, and precious stones like sapphires and beryl.
  • The rivers that flow from the Himalayas through the Northern Plains deposit alluvium in their flood plains and make them fertile

The Plains of Northern India

The plains of northern India comprise a vast stretch of level and fertile land, formed by the alluvium deposited by the rivers. They include the lowlands of the three major rivers — the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra together with their tributEiries.

The river Indus has its source in the Kailash Range, a little to the west of Manasarovar Lake. It has five tributaries, namely, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej and Beas.

  • The Ganga rises in the Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas. Cutting through the Shivalik range, it enters the plains at Haridwar (Uttarakhand).
  • The main tributaries of Ganga are Yamuna (which joins Ganga on its right bank at Allahabad), Son, Ramganga, Ghaghra, Gomti, Gandak, Kosi and Mahananda.
  • The Brahmaputra river rises in Tibet near lake Manasarovar and flows eastwEird as Tsangpo.
  • In Assam, the river Brahmaputra is joined by numerous streams, namely, the Dihang, Dibang and Lohit. Its other tributaries Eire, Tista, Dhansiri and Manas. On the basis of regional characteristics,

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Plains of River Indus

The Plains of Northern India can be sub-divided into the following areas:

The Punjab Plains:

In India, these plains lie in Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh. A significant feature of these plains is the doabs of the five tributaries ofthe Indus —Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej and Beas. Punjab derives its name from these, i.e., the land of five rivers. The

Rajasthan Plains:

These include the Marusthali or the Great Indian Desert or The Thar Desert. It is a sandy desert and is surrounded by the Sutlej in the north-west, the Aravalli range in the east, the Indus Valley in the west and the Rann of Kutch in the south.

  • These plains extend over the north-west India (Rajasthan desert) and* eastern Pakistan.
  • Cultivation is done in small patches in this area with the water provided by small streams which originate from the Aravalli during the rainy season. These fertile tracts are known as Rohi.

The only significant river is Luni. The area north of Luni is a sandy plain. There exists an area of inland drainage on the north of the Luni basin.

  • This is because the rivers of the area do not have sufficient water to reach the sea and dryup or disappear into the sand.
  • These plains are dotted with several salt lakes on the eastern edge of the desert, such as the Sambhar, Kuchaman and Didwana.
  • The Sambhar lake is the largest lake which lies on the outskirts of Jaipur.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Thar Desert

The Ganga Plains:

  • These plains extend from the Yamuna river in the west to the western borders of Bangladesh, covering a distance of about 1,400 km in the States of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana, Delhi, partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.
  • They consist of several regions, i.e., the Ganga-Yamuna doab, Awadh Plains and Mithila Plains.
  • These plains have been formed by the sediments brought down by the rivers Ganga, Yamuna, Ghagra and their tributaries.
  • These rivers make the Ganga Plains one of the most fertile plains in the world.

The Brahmaputra Plains:

These low-level plains extend in Assam for about 640 km.

  • They have been formed by deposits from the Brahmaputra River and its tributaries and are bordered by high mountains.
  • The small, meandering streams of the north form marshy areas. In some places on the plain, many steeply rising hillocks are found. Besides, there are several riverine islands, including Majuli, which is the largest river island in the world
  • The Brahmaputra Basin is sometimes said to be the continuation ofthe northern plains towards the east.
  • It is demarcated by the Eastern Himalayas of Arunachal Pradesh in the north, the Garo-Khasi-Jaintia and Mikir Hills in the south, Patkai and Naga Hills in the east and the lower Ganga Plain in the west.

Significance of the Northern Plains

The Northern plains are among the most level and extensive plains in the world.

They are of immense significance due to the following reasons: 

The northern plains are the most favourable for human settlement as they are endowed with fertile soil, numerous rivers and favourable climate. That is why these plains support one of the most densely populated regions of the world.

  • The fertile soils, perennial water resources and favourable climate have made the northern plains rich agricultural land.
  • Many multi-purpose dams have been constructed across some of the rivers to provide water for irrigation and to generate electricity.
  • The use of irrigation and modern facilities has made Punjab, Haryana and western UP the granaries of India.
  • The Northern plains have been socially and religiously quite significant due to their vast literature, art and architecture and sacred rivers.
  • Many religious and historical cities such as Haridwar, Ayodhya, Varanasi, Allahabad, Mathura and Patna are situated along the rivers of the northern plains. Buddhism and Jainism flourished in these plains.
  • The plains are almost level, which allows for the construction of roadways and railways and makes rivers in the plains navigable, which allows easy transportation and thus, promotes trade and commerce.
  • The flatness of the land also allows easy access for communication facilities

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Agricultural Field in the Plains of Northern India

The Peninsular Plateau

The Peninsular Plateau is the largest and the oldest of all the physiographic divisions. It lies to the south of the northern plains. It is triangular in shape.

  • Its north-west limit is marked by the Aravalli range, and its northern extreme has the raised Bundelkhand Plateau.
  • At its western and eastern ends are the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats, respectively.
  • The Peninsular Plateau has two main divisions — the Central Highlands in the north west and the Deccan Plateau in the south, separated by the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges.
  • The Chhotanagpur Plateau forms the eastern limit of the Peninsular Plateau. It is rich in mineral resources and is called the ‘Ruhr of India’

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 The Plateau of Peninsular India

Central Highlands:

The part of the Peninsular Plateau lying to the north of the Narmada, covering a major area of the Malwa Plateau, is known as the Central Highlands.

  • The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
  • The eastward extensions of this plateau are known as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.
  • The Malwa Plateau is flat-topped region bound by the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges in the south, the Aravalli Range in the west and the Chhotanagpur Plateau in the east.
  • In the north the Malwa plateau gradually merges with the northern plains.
  • It is formed by the lava flows. The western part of the region is drained by the Mahi river, the middle part by the Chambal river and the eastern part by the Betwa river.
  • The plateau is broken by ravines (a deep, narrow gorge with steep sides) mainly in the Chambal, Yamuna and Banas valleys.

The Deccan Plateau:

The Deccan Plateau is India’s largest plateau. It is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.

  • It occupies the land between the Western and the Eastern Ghats and south of the Mahadeo, Maikal, Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
  • The river Narmada flows through a narrow rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
  • Another important river of the region, i.e., Tapti, flows through a valley south of the Satpura range.
  • These two rivers flow through hard rocks and are unable to form distributaries before they enter the Arabian Sea.

The Western Ghats and The Eastern Ghats:

The Deccan Plateau is bound by hills on the west and the east, called the Western Ghats orSahyadri and the Eastern Ghats, respectively. The Western Ghats run along the west coast from the south of the Tapti river valley to Kanyakumari. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the south.

  • The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed through passes like Thai, Bhor and the Pal ghats.
  • The Eastern Ghats, however, are discontinuous and irregular. They are dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The highest peaks of the Western Ghats are Anai Mudi and the Doda Betta, whereas Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. The meeting point of the Western and the Eastern Ghats is in the Nilgiri hills and has the highest point at Doda Betta peak.
  • A unique feature of the Deccan Plateau is the Black soil region, known as the Deccan Trap, which extends over Maharashtra and parts of Gujarat, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is of volcanic origin and hence the rocks are igneous. In fact, these rocks have denuded over time and have led to the formation of Black soil.
  • There are many rivers in the Deccan Plateau. Some rivers flow east to end up in the Bay of Bengal. They are greater in number than the west-flowing rivers, have wide catchment areas and form large deltas.
  • These include the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Cauvery (Kaveri).
  • The west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India are smaller and fewer in number. These Peninsular Rivers include the Narmada, the Tapti, the Luni, the Sabarmati and the Mahi.
  • They fall into the Arabian Sea. They do not form deltas but only form estuaries. This is because the west-flowing rivers, especially the Narmada and the Tapi, flow through hard rocks and are not able to form distributaries before they enter the Arabian Sea.

Difference Between Westren Ghats and Eastren Ghats:

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Westren Ghats And Eastren Ghats

Significance of the Peninsular Plateau

The Peninsular Plateau of India has been immensely contributing to the prosperity of the country due to its richness in minerals, fauna, forests, etc.

  • Peninsular India is a depository a variety of minerals, such as iron, bauxite, mica, manganese, copper, chromium and coal, iron, gold, chromium and porcelain clay, coal, mica, graphite and corundum.
  • The north-western plateau ofthe Peninsular India is covered with basaltic lava which is rich in iron. Soil formed of basaltic lava, i.e., black soil,l is conducive for the cultivation of cotton.
  • This soil also facilitates the production of tea, rubber, coffee and millets. Tobacco, groundnuts and oilseeds are abundantly grown in the Peninsular region.
  • The highlands of the plateau are covered with different types of forests. Ebony, mahogany, came, bamboo, eucalyptus, sal, and sandalwood are prominent commercial timbers of the region, while tall grasses, shrubs and herbs provide fodder.
  • The Peninsular rivers are marked bya number of waterfalls which are being harnessed for the production of hydroelectricity. The Western Ghats are among the finest faunal tracts of India.
  • These include the Nilgiri Ibex, the black monkeys and the lion¬ tailed macaque. Forests in the Peninsular region are also home to wild elephants, sambar, chital, leopards and tigers

The Coastal Plains

The Deccan Plateau has a coastal strip in the east and in the west, which are known as the coastal plains.

  • They run along the coastline of the Peninsula from the Rann of Kutch in the west to the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta in the east.
  • The Western Coastal plains lie on the coastal strip along the Arabian Sea and west of the Western Ghats while the Eastern Coastal plains lie between the Bay of Bengal and the Eastern Ghats.
  • The two plains meet at the tip of the peninsula, i.e., at Cape Comorin.

The Western Coastal Plains:

They consist of three sections, The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan Coast (Mumbai-Goa), the central stretch is called the Kanara Coast, while the southern stretch is called the Malabar Coast. The Malabar Coast is known for the lagoons or backwaters called kayals, such as the Ashtamudi and Vembanad lakes.

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Backwaters of Kerala

Eastern Coastal Plains:

The coastal areas along the Bay of Bengal are broad and more level.

The area is rocky, except for the delta region and is highly dissected by small but fast flowing rivers. Several depositional features such as spits, lagoons and offshore bars are found along the coast.

  • The prominent deltas are those of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
  • These deltas are not suitable for harbours as their mouths are full of silt. There are several lakes on the East Coast.
  • These include the Chilka lake in Odisha, and Kolleru and Pulicat in Andhra Pradesh.
  • From the mouth of the Ganga to Nellore, the plains are called Northern Circars. These plains lie between the Mahanadi and the Krishna rivers.
  • The southern part of the Eastern Coastal Plains from Nellore to Kanyakumari are called Coromandel Coast in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Difference Between Westren Coastal Plains and Eastren Coastal Plains:

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Westren And Eastren Coastal Plains

Significance of the Coastal Plains

They are the sources of precious minerals.

  • Gujarat is famous for producing salt.
  • The sands of Kerala coast have a large quantity of Monazite which is used for nuclear power.
  • The sedimentary rocks of these plains are said to contain large deposits of mineral oil.
  • The ports along the coasts account for 98 per cent of the international trade.
  • Fisheries are set up in these areas

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Rajiv Gandhi Water Sports Complex, Port Blair

Islands

Besides the mainland, India has two groups of islands, i.e., the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal and the Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.

  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of more than 300 islands out of which 265 are uninhabited.
  • The two groups of islands are separated by the Ten degree channel. This channel is named after 10°N latitude which passes over it.
  • The Andaman Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal 1,255 km from Kolkata and 1,190 km from Chennai.
  • Five large islands grouped together are called the Great Andamans and to the south is the island of Little Andaman.
  • The Nicobar Islands are situated to the south of the Andamans, 121 km from Little Andaman. There are 19 islands, 7 uninhabited, with a total area of 1,841 sq km.
  • The islands are usually divided into three sub-groups: southern, central and northern. The chief islands are Great Nicobar and Car Nicobar. These islands are of volcanic origin. The only active volcano of India is found on the Barren Island.
  • Lakshadweep consists of a group of 36 islands, of which only 11 are inhabited and located about 280 to 480 kms off Kerala coast.
  • It was constituted as a Union Territory in 1956 as the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands, and renamed in November 1973 as Lakshadweep. The northern portion is called the Amindivis.
  • The remaining islands are called the Laccadives (including Minicoy Islands).

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Neil Islands, Andaman and Nicobar

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro – Electric Projects

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Question 1. This political map of India shows the locations of major dams and hydroelectric projects such as the Salal Project, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, Hirakud Dam, and Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, etc., marked with letters from 1 to 8.

Answer:

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro - Electric Projects Political map

Salal Project:

 The Salal Project is the first hydroelectric project built on the Chenab River in Jammu And Kashmir

Hirakud Dam:

The Hirakud Dam, built across the Mahanandi River in Odisha, is the longest dam in India, stretching over 25.8 kilometres

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam:

The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, built on the Krishna River, is one of the largest masonry dams in the world

Question 2. On the political outline  map of India, locate and label the following with symbols.

  1. Tehri Dam
  2. Bhakra Nagal Dam
  3. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
  4. Salal Dam

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro - Electric Projects On the political outline map of India

Answer:

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro - Electric Projects On the political outline map of India Answer

Question 3. On the political, locate and label the following with suitable symbols.

  1. Tungabhadra Dam
  2. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
  3. Hirakud Dam
  4. Sardar Sarovar Dam

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro - Electric Projects On the political, locate and label

Answer:

CBSE Class 10 For Geography Map Pointing Major Dams And Hydro - Electric Projects On the political, locate and label Answer

NEET Biology Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit Of Life Multiple Choice Questions

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NEET Biology  Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit Of Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A science student was viewing a rose plant cell through an electron microscope, where the student observed the presence of a hard rigid wall and a very thin delicate wall in the cell enclosing the cytoplasm.

How can we call that thin delicate wall?

  1. Cell wall
  2. Middle lamella
  3. Plasma membrane
  4. Nuclear membrane

Answer. 3. Plasma membrane

Question 2. Gaseous exchange in amoeba takes place through

  1. Osmosis
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Diffusion
  4. Exosmosis

Answer. 3. Diffusion

NEET Biology Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit Of Life mcqs

Question 3. In ______, permease assists a molecule to diffuse through the membrane that it cannot penetrate alone.

  1. Facilitated transport or diffusion
  2. Active diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Pinocytosis

Answer. 1. Facilitated transport or diffusion

Question 4. Name the ‘energy currency of the cell’.

  1. GTP
  2. ATP
  3. DTP
  4. ADP

Answer. 2. ATP

Question 5. Phagocytosis is

  1. Cell eating
  2. Cell drinking
  3. Cell death
  4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 1. Cell eating

Question 6. Pinocytosis is

  1. Cell eating
  2. Cell drinking
  3. Cell death
  4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 2. Cell drinking

Question 7. Exocytosis is

  1. Cell eating
  2. Cell drinking
  3. Cell death
  4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 4. Cell vomiting

Question 8. The cell wall consists of minute cellulose fibres called

  1. Microfibrils
  2. Microsomes
  3. Microtubules
  4. Microns

Answer. 1. Microfibrils

Question 9. Name the ’protein factories of a cell’.

  1. Peroxisomes
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Nucleus

Answer. 3. Ribosomes

Question 10. Genes are the discrete segments of

  1. RNA
  2. ATP
  3. mRNA
  4. DNA

Answer. 4. DNA

Question 11. ______ provides a specific shape to the chromosomes owing to its position.

  1. Centromere
  2. Centriole
  3. Peroxisome
  4. Oxysome

Answer. 1. Centromere

Question 12. Human beings have ______ pairs of chromosomes.

  1. 21
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 46

Answer. 3. 23

Question 13. Diffusion is fastest in

  1. Solid phase
  2. Liquid phase
  3. Semi-solid phase
  4. Gaseous phase

Answer. 4. Gaseous phase

Question 14. What will happen when a cell is kept in an isotonic solution?

  1. Shape of the cell changes.
  2. Size of the cell remains the same.
  3. Will shrink
  4. Will swell

Answer. 2. Size of the cell remains the same.

Question 15. The process of withdrawal of water from a cell through osmosis is called

  1. Endosmosis
  2. Exosmosis
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of these

Answer. 2. Exosmosis

Question 16. When exosmosis occurs in a plant cell, it is

  1. Plasmolysed
  2. Re-plasmolysed
  3. Non-plasmolysed
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Plasmolysed

Question 17. Transport of substances across the plasmalemma against the concentration gradient is

  1. Active transport
  2. Passive transport
  3. Bulk transport
  4. All of these

Answer. 1. Active transport

Question 18. Unicellular freshwater animals and most plant cells tend to gain water through the process of

  1. Diffusion
  2. Osmosis
  3. Imbibition
  4. Facilitated diffusion

Answer. 3. Imbibition

Question 19. Fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane was given by

  1. Schleiden and Schwann
  2. Singer and Nicolson
  3. Knoll and Ruska
  4. Huxley

Answer. 2. Singer and Nicolson

Question 20. The phenomenon by which protoplast of a cell shrinks from the wall is called

  1. Osmosis
  2. Plasmolysis
  3. Diffusion
  4. Glycolysis

Answer. 2. Plasmolysis

Question 21. Which of the following organelle is known as ‘suicidal bags’?

  1. Peroxisomes
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Endosomes
  4. Vacuoles

Answer. 2. Lysosomes

Question 22. Name the ‘powerhouse of the cell’.

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Chromoplast
  3. Mitochondrion
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Mitochondrion

Question 23. In plant cells, Golgi apparatus is known as

  1. Dictyosomes
  2. Autosomes
  3. Oxisomes
  4. Golgi bodies

Answer. 1. Dictyosomes

Question 24. Light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in which part of chloroplast?

  1. Stroma
  2. Grana
  3. Cristae
  4. F1 particles

Answer. 2. Grana

Question 25. ______ serve as osmoregulatory organelles in protozoans.

  1. Vacuoles
  2. Vesicles
  3. Lumen
  4. Saccules

Answer. 1. Vacuoles

Question 26. Which one of the following has its own DNA?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Dictyosome
  3. Lysosome
  4. Peroxisome

Answer. 1. Mitochondria

Question 27. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Mitochondrion
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Nucleus

Answer. 3. Cytoplasm

Question 28. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

  1. Outer membrane
  2. Inner membrane
  3. Intermembrane space
  4. Matrix

Answer. 3. Intermembrane space

Question 29. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endo-membrane system?

  1. Golgi complex
  2. Peroxisome
  3. Vacuole
  4. Lysosome

Answer. 2. Peroxisome

Question 30. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Euglena viridis
  3. Amoeba proteus
  4. Paramecium caudatum

Answer. 1. Escherichia coli

Question 31. Which of the following can be made into crystal?

  1. A bacterium
  2. An amoeba
  3. A virus
  4. A sperm

Answer. 3. A virus

Question 32. A cell will swell up if

  1. The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium.
  2. The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.
  3. The concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium.
  4. Concentration of water molecules does not matter.

Answer. 2. The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.

Question 33. Chromosomes are made up of

  1. DNA
  2. Protein
  3. DNA and protein
  4. RNA

Answer. 3. DNA and protein

Question 34. Which of these options are not a function of ribosomes?

(1) It helps in the manufacture of protein molecules.

(2) It helps in the manufacture of enzymes.

(3) It helps in the manufacture of hormones.

(4) It helps in the manufacture of starch molecules.

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (2) and (3)
  3. (3) and (4)
  4. (4) and (1)

Answer. 3. (3) and (4)

Question 35. Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum?

  1. It behaves as transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm.
  2. It transports materials between various regions in cytoplasm.
  3. It can be the site of energy generation.
  4. It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell.

Answer. 3. It can be the site of energy generation.

Question 36. Following are a few definitions of osmosis, soread carefully and select the correct definition.

  1. Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
  2. Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration.
  3. Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration of solution through a permeable membrane.
  4. Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration of solution through a semipermeable membrane.

Answer. 1. Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.

Question 37. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as

  1. Breakdown (lysis) of plasma membrane in hypotonic medium.
  2. Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.
  3. Shrinkage of nucleoplasm
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.

Question 38. Which of the following is covered by a single membrane?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Vacuole
  3. Lysosome
  4. Plastid

Answer. 2. Vacuole

Question 39. Find out the false sentence.

  1. Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.
  2. Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA and hence, they are able to make their own structural proteins.
  3. Mitochondria is said to be the power house of the cell as ATP is generated in them.
  4. Cytoplasm is known as protoplasm.

Answer. 1. Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.

Question 40. Find out the correct sentence.

  1. Enzymes packed in lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).
  2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein, respectively.
  3. Endoplasmic reticulum is related with the destruction of plasma membrane.
  4. Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus.

Answer. 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein, respectively.

Question 41. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?

  1. Golgi apparatus
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Vacuoles

Answer. 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 42. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane are manufactured by

  1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Plasma membrane
  4. Mitochondria

Answer. 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 43. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes are also known as

  1. Nucleus
  2. Nucleolus
  3. Nucleic acid
  4. Nucleoid

Answer. 4. Nucleoid

Question 44. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Plastids
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer. 4. Golgi apparatus

Question 45. Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?

  1. Storage
  2. Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell.
  3. Waste excretion
  4. Locomotion

Answer. 4. Locomotion

Question 46. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed as

  1. Exocytosis
  2. Endocytosis
  3. Plasmolysis
  4. Exocytosis and endocytosis

Answer. 2. Endocytosis

Question 47. The cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Hydrilla
  3. Mango tree
  4. Cactus

Answer. 1. Bacteria

Question 48. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Nucleus
  4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Golgi apparatus

Question 49. Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Lysosome

Answer. 3. Mitochondria

Question 50. Kitchen of the cell is

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer. 3. Chloroplast

Question 51. Lipid molecules in the cell are sythesized by

  1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Plastids

Answer. 1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 52. Cell arising from pre-existing cell was stated by

  1. Haeckel
  2. Virchow
  3. Hooke
  4. Schleiden

Answer. 2. Virchow

Question 53. Cell theory was given by

  1. Schleiden and Schwann
  2. Virchow
  3. Hooke
  4. Haeckel

Answer. 1. Schleiden and Schwann

Question 54. The only cell organelle seen in prokaryotic cell is

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Plastids
  4. Lysosomes

Answer. 2. Ribosomes

Question 55. Organelle without a cell membrane is

  1. Ribosome
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Nucleus

Answer. 1. Ribosome

Question 56. 1 μm is

  1. 10-6 m
  2. 10-9 m
  3. 10-10 m
  4. 10-3 m

Answer. 1. 10-6 m

Question 57. Lysosome arises from

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Nucleus
  4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Golgi apparatus

Question 58. Living cells were discovered by

  1. Robert Hooke
  2. Purkinje
  3. Leeuwenhoek
  4. Robert Brown

Answer. 3. Leeuwenhoek

Question 59. Select the odd one out from the following.

  1. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances dissolved in it.
  2. Membranes are made of organic molecules like proteins and lipids.
  3. Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
  4. Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.

Answer. 4. Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.

NEET Physics Chapter 1 Motion Question And Answers

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NEET Physics  Chapter 1 Motion Question And Answers

Question 1. What is the difference between speed and velocity?
Answer:

Difference between speed and velocity

The distance travelled per second by a body is called speed. It is a scalar quantity. It does not tell the direction of motion. Speed is always positive and value of average speed is never zero.

While distance travelled per second by the moving object in the specified direction is called velocity. It is a vector quantity. Velocity tells us the speed as well as direction of motion. It can be positive as well as negative. The average velocity can be zero.

Question 2. Differentiate between acceleration and retardation.
Answer:

Difference between acceleration and retardation

The rate of change of velocity with respect to time is called acceleration. While decrease in velocity per unit time is called retardation.

Question 3. How uniform acceleration different than variable acceleration?
Answer: When equal change in velocity takes place in equal interval of time, then it is called uniform acceleration. If the change in velocity is not same in the same interval of time, then it is called variable acceleration.

Question 4. Define acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:

Acceleration due to gravity

When an object falls freely, the acceleration produced in the body due to Earth’s gravitational attraction is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by letter g is its value is 9.8 m/s2.

NEET Physics Chapter 1 Motion Question And Answers

Question 5. What does the slope of distance-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of distance-time graph denote

The slope of distance-time graph denotes the magnitude of speed.

Question 6. What does the slope of the velocity-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of velocity-time graph denote:

The slope of velocity-time graph denotes the magnitude of acceleration.

Question 7. What does the slope of displacement-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of the displacement-time graph denotes:

The slope of the displacement-time graph denotes the magnitude of velocity.

Question 8. What does the area enclosed under the velocity-time graph denote?
Answer:

The area enclosed under velocity-time graph denote:

The area enclosed under the velocity-time graph denotes the magnitude of displacement.

Question 9. Write all three equations of motion.
Answer:

There are three equations of motion.

The expression for the first equation of motion is:

v = u + at

The expression for a second equation of motion is:

S = ut + 1/2 at2

The expression for a third equation of motion is:

v2 – u2 = 2aS

Where, u = Initial velocity, v = final velocity, a = acceleration S = distance travelled

Question 10. Define uniform circular motion.
Answer:

Uniform circular motion:

If an object is moving with a velocity of constant magnitude on a circular path, then its motion is known as uniform circular motion.

Question 11. A car runs at a uniform speed of 70 km/hr from Bangalore to Mysore in 2 hours. Find the distance between two cities.
Answer: 140 km

Question 12. Rita goes to the market, which is 10 km away from her home. She travelled back 5 km in the opposite direction and stopped at the park. What is the total distance travelled and her displacement?
Answer: Displacement = 5 m Distance = 15 m

Question 13. Rahul initially at rest runs with a constant acceleration of 5 ms-2. He travels a distance of 10 m. Calculate the final velocity and time taken.
Answer: V = 10 m/s, t = 2 s

Question 14. Write all the three equations of motion.
Answer:

There are three equations of motion.

The expression for first equation of motion is:

v = u + at

The expression for second equation of motion is:

S = ut + 1/2 at2

The expression for third equation of motion is:

v2 – u2 = 2aS

Where, u = Initial velocity, v = final velocity, a = acceleration S = distance travelled

Question 15. Define uniform circular motion.
Answer:

Uniform circular motion:

If an object is moving with velocity of constant magnitude on a circular path, then its motion is known as uniform circular motion.

NEET Physics Chapter 5 Sound Questions And Answers

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NEET Physics  Chapter 5 Sound Questions And Answers

Question 1. Define sound.
Answer:

Sound:

A sound is a form of energy that propagates from one place to another through a medium.

Question 2. How is the sound produced?
Answer:

Sound is produced when an object vibrates. Vibration is the rapid to and fro motion of an object.

Question 3. Sound is a form of energy. Explain.
Answer:

Sound is a form of energy:

Mechanical energy is required to start vibrations in an object producing sound. The vibrations of objects are transmitted in a medium in waveforms from one point to the next and so on. These waves on reaching our ears produce vibrations in the eardrum which are perceived as sound by us. Thus, sound is a form of energy.

NEET Physics Chapter 5 Sound Questions And Answers

Question 4. Sound cannot be produced in a body if it’s not vibrating. (True/False)
Answer. True

Question 1. Describe various uses of multiple reflections of sound.
Answer:

Various uses of multiple reflections of sound:

Multiple reflections of sound are used to measure the depth of the sea or ocean. It is also used to detect the position of objects for example sea rocks, hidden icebergs in the sea, and ocean shipwrecks. It is also used to investigate problems inside the human body.

Question 5. What is the range of hearing of a human being?
Answer:

Range of hearing of human being:

The range of hearing of a human being is the sound of frequency between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Question 6. Define infrasonic and ultrasonic sounds.
Answer:

Infrasonic and ultrasonic sounds:

The sound of frequency less than 20 Hz is called infrasonic sound while the sound of frequency greater than 20 kHz is called ultrasonic sound.

Question 7. What are the additional properties of ultrasound?
Answer:

The additional properties carried by ultrasound are:

  • The energy carried is very high.
  • It can travel along a well-defined straight path. It does not bend appreciably at the edges of the obstacle because of its small wavelength.

Question 8. What are the various applications of ultrasound?
Answer:

The various applications of ultrasound are:

  • Bats avoid obstacles in their path by producing and hearing the ultrasound.
  • It is used in drilling holes and making cuts of desired shape in the glass.
  • It is used in cleaning very small objects like parts of watches or other electronic items.
  • It is used for the detection of defects in the metals.
  • It is widely used for imaging of human organs.
  • It is used in human surgery to remove cataracts and in kidneys to break the stone into fine grains.
  • It is used in SONAR (Sound navigation and ranging)

Question 9. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. What is the velocity of sound waves?
Answer. 1000 m/s

Question 10. The period of a vibrating body is 0.05  s. What is the frequency of waves that it emits?
Answer. 20 Hz

Question 11. A bat can hear the sound of frequencies up to 120 kHz. Determine the minimum wavelength of sound that it can hear. The speed of sound in air is 344 m/s.
Answer. 2.867 x 10-3 m

Question 12. A wave pulse of frequency 200 Hz, on a string, moves a distance of 8 m in 0.05 s. Calculate the wavelength of the wave on a string.
Answer. 0.8 m

Question 13. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s and the frequency is 256 Hz. What will be the wavelength?
Answer. 1.25 m

NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions

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NEET Biology  Chapter 5 Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. An inexhaustible resource is ______.

  1. Soil
  2. Minerals
  3. Solar energy
  4. Fossil fuels

Answer. 3. Solar energy

Question 2. Which of the following(s) is a constituent of SPM?

  1. Dust
  2. Smoke and soot
  3. Fly ash
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 3. Air is a mixture of

  1. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon monoxide, water vapour
  2. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, oxygen, carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen, oxygen, methane, carbon dioxide
  4. Nitrogen, oxygen, water vapour, carbon dioxide

Answer. 4. Nitrogen, oxygen, water vapour, carbon dioxide

NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources mcqs

Question 4. Green plants in an ecosystem are referred to as

  1. Consumer
  2. Producer
  3. Decomposer
  4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Producer

Question 5. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

  1. Soil
  2. Minerals
  3. Forests
  4. Underground water

Answer. 4. Underground water

Question 6. Greenhouse gases are caused by which of the following?

  1. Industries
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Lightening
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 7.  Nitrogen fixation can be done by which of the following?

  1. Industries
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Lightening
  4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 8. On moon, the temperature ranges from –190° C to 110° C. This effect occurs due to which of the following?

  1. No water bodies present
  2. Water bodies present.
  3. No biogeochemical cycle.
  4. No atmosphere

Answer. 4. No atmosphere

Question 9. Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to which of the following?

  1. Chlorine compound
  2. Fluorine compound
  3. Halogen compound
  4. None of these

Answer. 3. Halogen compound

Question 10. According to central pollution control board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of the diameter

  1. 2.50 µm
  2. 5.00 µm
  3. 10.00 µm
  4. 7.5 µm

Answer. 1. 2.50 µm

Question 11. Metal generally present in polluted air is

  1. cadmium
  2. lead
  3. mercury
  4. zinc

Answer. 2. lead

Question 12. Pollutants emitted by jet aeroplanes in outer atmosphere fluorocarbon are known as

  1. smog
  2. photochemical oxidants
  3. aerosols
  4. loess

Answer. 3. aerosols

Question 13. Acid rain is rainfall with a pH of

  1. 7
  2. 6.56
  3. 5.65
  4. 11

Answer. 3. 5.65

Question 14. Algal bloom in a lake

  1. increases the carbon dioxide level
  2. leads to oxygen depletion
  3. kills fishes
  4. all of these

Answer. 4. all of these

Question 15. Water pollution is best assessed by determining the

  1. DO
  2. BOD and turbidity.
  3. DO and acidity.
  4. hardness and alkalinity.

Answer. 2. BOD and turbidity.

Question 16. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for the occurrence of soil erosion?

  1. Dust storm
  2. Heavy rains
  3. Cyclones
  4. Flood

Answer. 3. Cyclones

Question 17. Which of the following is not a property of alluvial soil?

  1. Layered
  2. Contains smooth round particles
  3. Rich in humus
  4. Suitable for growing pulses

Answer. 4. Suitable for growing pulses

Question 18. Measurement of clay particles in soil is about ___________.

  1. 0.5 mm
  2. 0.05 mm
  3. 5 mm
  4. 50 mm

Answer. 2. 0.05 mm

Question 19. The breakdown of complex substances by living organisms, such as lichens and bryophytes is termed as

  1. biological weathering
  2. chemical weathering
  3. physical weathering
  4. paedogenesis

Answer. 4. paedogenesis

Question 20. Which of the following is not an effect of ozone depletion?

  1. Skin cancer
  2. Poor digestion
  3. Damage to eyes
  4. Damages immune system

Answer. 2. Poor digestion

Question 21. Cycling materials are stored in reservoirs or sinks and become unavailable to living organisms, this process is called

  1. organic sink
  2. inorganic sink
  3. carbon sink
  4. phosphorus sink

Answer. 3. carbon sink

Question 22. What is the percentage of oxygen in air?

  1. 29
  2. 71
  3. 46
  4. 21

Answer. 4. 21

Question 23. Which of the following is the role of azotobacter in the soil?

  1. Nitrogen fixation
  2. Ammonification
  3. Nitrification
  4. Denitrification

Answer. 1. Nitrogen fixation

NEET Biology Chapter 3 Diversity In Living Organisms Multiple Choice Questions

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NEET Biology Chapter 3 Diversity In Living Organisms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Sponges belong to which of the following phylum?

  1. Porifera
  2. Cnidaria
  3. Ctenophora
  4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 1. Porifera

Question 2. Corals belong to which of the following phylum?

  1. Porifera
  2. Cnidaria
  3. Ctenophora
  4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 2. Cnidaria

Chapter 3 Diversity In Living Organisms mcqs

Question 3. In which of the phylum, two tentacles and eight longitudinal rows of ciliary comb plates for locomotion are there?

  1. Porifera
  2. Cnidaria
  3. Ctenophora
  4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 3. Ctenophora

Question 4. Flatworms are included in which of the following phylum?

  1. Porifera
  2. Cnidaria
  3. Ctenophora
  4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 4. Platyhelminthes

Question 5. Which phylum of animals is also called flatworms?

  1. Porifera
  2. Coelenterata
  3. Platyhelminthes
  4. Nematoda

Answer. 3. Platyhelminthes

Question 6. What does arthropod means?

  1. Bony legs
  2. Cartilaginous legs
  3. Largest legs
  4. Jointed legs

Answer. 4. Jointed legs

Question 7. What is not poisoning among these?

  1. Scorpion
  2. Centipede
  3. Spider
  4. Crab

Answer. 4. Crab

Question 8. The excretory system in annelids consist of tubes called

  1. flame cells
  2. metanephridia
  3. nephridia
  4. protonephridia

Answer. 3. nephridia

Question 9. In which organism flame cells form the excretory system?

  1. Flatworms
  2. Earthworms
  3. Insects
  4. Crabs

Answer. 1. Flatworms

Question 10. Which of the following are found filamentous?

  1. Spirogyra
  2. Euglena
  3. Chlamydomonas
  4. Amoeba

Answer. 1. Spirogyra

Question 11. Find out the incorrect statement from the following.

  1. Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
  2. Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition for classifying the organisms in five kingdoms.
  3. Both Monera and Protista may be autotrophic and heterotrophic.
  4. Monerans have well-defined nucleus.

Answer. 4. Monerans have well-defined nucleus.

Question 12. Which among the following has specialized tissue for conduction of water?

(1) Thallophyta

(2) Bryophyta

(3) Pteridophyta

(4) Gymnosperms

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (2) and (3)
  3. (3) and (4)
  4. (1) and (4)

Answer. 3. (3) and (4)

Question 13. Which among the following produce seeds?

  1. Thallophyta
  2. Bryophyta
  3. Pteridophyta
  4. Gymnosperms

Answer. 4. Gymnosperms

Question 14. Which one of the following is a true fish?

  1. Jellyfish
  2. Starfish
  3. Dogfish
  4. Silverfish

Answer. 3. Dogfish

Question 15. Which among the following is exclusively marine?

  1. Porifera
  2. Echinodermata
  3. Mollusca
  4. Pisces

Answer. 2. Echinodermata

Question 16. Which among the following have open circulatory system?

(1) Arthropoda

(2) Mollusca

(3) Annelida

(4) Coelenterata

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (3) and (4)
  3. (1) and (3)
  4. (2) and (4)

Answer. 1. (1) and (2)

Question 17. In which group of animals, coelom is filled with blood?

  1. Arthropoda
  2. Annelida
  3. Nematoda
  4. Echinodermata

Answer. 1. Arthropoda

Question 18. Elephantiasis is caused by

  1. Wuchereria
  2. Pinworm
  3. Planarians
  4. Liver flukes

Answer. 1. Wuchereria

Question 19. Which one is the most striking or common character of the vertebrates?

  1. Presence of notochord
  2. Presence of triploblastic condition
  3. Presence of gill pouches
  4. Presence of coelom

Answer. 1. Presence of notochord

Question 20. Which among the following have scales?

(1) Amphibians

(2) Pisces

(3) Reptiles

(4) Mammals

  1. (1) and (3)
  2. (3) and (4)
  3. (2) and (3)
  4. (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. (2) and (3)

Question 21. Find out the false statement from the following.

  1. Aves are warm-blooded, egg-laying, and have four-chambered hearts.
  2. Aves have a feather-covered body, forelimbs are modified as wing and breathe through lungs.
  3. Most of the mammals are viviparous.
  4. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Answer. 4. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Question 22. Pteridophyta do not have

  1. Root
  2. Stem
  3. Flowers
  4. Leaves

Answer. 3. Flowers

Question 23. Identify a member of Porifera from the following.

  1. Spongilla
  2. Euglena
  3. Penicillium
  4. Hydra

Answer. 1. Spongilla

Question 24. Which of the following is not an aquatic animal?

  1. Hydra
  2. Jelly fish
  3. Corals
  4. Filaria

Answer. 4. Filaria

Question 25. Amphibians do not have which of the following?

  1. Three-chambered heart
  2. Gills or lungs
  3. Scales
  4. Mucus glands

Answer. 3. Scales

Question 26. Organisms without nucleus and cell organelles belong to

(1) Fungi

(2) Protista

(3) Cyanobacteria

(4) Archaebacteria

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (3) and (4)
  3. (1) and (4)
  4. (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. (3) and (4)

Question 27. Which of the following is not a criterion for the classification of living organisms?

  1. Body design of the organism.
  2. Ability to produce one’s own food.
  3. Membrane-bound nucleus and cell organelles.
  4. Height of the plant.

Answer. 4. Height of the plant.

Question 28. Which of the following features is not a characteristic of Protochordata?

  1. Presence of notochord.
  2. Bilateral symmetry and coelom.
  3. Jointed legs.
  4. Presence of circulatory system.

Answer. 3. Jointed legs.

Question 29. Which of the following are locomotory organs of Echinodermata?

  1. Tube feet
  2. Muscular feet
  3. Jointed legs
  4. Parapodia

Answer. 1. Tube feet

Question 30. Corals are

  1. Poriferans attached to some solid support.
  2. Cnidarians are solitary living.
  3. Poriferans are present at the sea bed.
  4. Cnidarians that live in colonies.

Answer. 4. Cnidarians that live in colonies.

Question 31. Who introduced the system of scientific nomenclature of organisms?

  1. Robert Whittaker
  2. Carolus Linnaeus
  3. Robert Hooke
  4. Ernst Haeckel

Answer. 2. Carolus Linnaeus

Question 32. Two-chambered heart occurs in which of the following animals?

  1. Crocodiles
  2. Fish
  3. Aves
  4. Amphibians

Answer. 2. Fish

Question 33. The skeleton is made entirely of cartilage in which of the following animals?

  1. Sharks
  2. Tuna
  3. Rohu
  4. None of these

Answer. 1. Sharks

Question 34. Which one of the following is not an annelid?

  1. Nereis
  2. Earthworm
  3. Leech
  4. Urchins

Answer. 4. Urchins

Question 35. The book Systema Naturae was written by

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Haeckel
  3. Whittaker
  4. Robert Brown

Answer. 1. Linnaeus

Question 36. Carl von Linnaeus was involved with which branch of science?

  1. Morphology
  2. Taxonomy
  3. Physiology
  4. Medicine

Answer. 2. Taxonomy

Question 37. Real organs are absent in which of the following?

  1. Mollusca
  2. Coelenterata
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Echinodermata

Answer. 2. Coelenterata

Question 38. Hard calcium carbonate structures are used as skeletons by which of the following?

  1. Echinodermata
  2. Protochordate
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Nematoda

Answer. 1. Echinodermata

Question 39. Differentiation in segmental fashion occurs in which of the following?

  1. Leech
  2. Starfish
  3. Snails
  4. Ascaris

Answer. 1. Leech

Question 40. In a taxonomic hierarchy, family comes between which of the following?

  1. Class and Order
  2. Order and Genus
  3. Genus and Species
  4. Division and Class

Answer. 2. Order and Genus

Question 41. The five-kingdom classification was given by

  1. Morgan
  2. R. Whittaker
  3. Linnaeus
  4. Haeckel

Answer. 2. R. Whittaker

Question 42. A well-defined nucleus is absent in

  1. blue-green algae
  2. diatoms
  3. algae
  4. yeast

Answer. 1. blue-green algae

Question 43. The book ‘Origin of Species’ was written by

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Darwin
  3. Hackel
  4. Whittaker

Answer. 2. Darwin

NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Question And Answers

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NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Question And Answers

Question 1. What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?
Answer:

The major sources of water are as follows.

  • Water in the form of snow, ice-covered mountains.
  • Underground water well.
  • Surface water like in lakes, rivers, ponds.
  • Rainfall.
  • Stored rain water in tanks, dams.

Question 2. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?
Answer: Yes, the water is polluted by (a) sewage (b) dumping waste in river, (c) factory waste, etc.

Question 3. Why do organisms need water?
Answer:

Organisms need water for the following activities.

  • All cellular processes occur due to water.
  • Transportation of substances in our body takes place by dissolving in water.
  • Terrestrial animals require fresh water for transportation of minerals and for getting rid of waste from their body.
  • Plants require water for photosynthesis.

Question 4. Why is water essential for life?
Answer:

  • About 70% weight of human being is due to water.
  • All cellular processes takes place in water as medium.
  • All reactions takes place within our body and within the cells occur between substances that are dissolved in water.
  • Tansportation of substances from one form to another takes place due to water.
  • Terrestrial life forms require fresh water for the transportation of substances and to get rid of high amounts of wastes.

Question 5. What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer:

Greenhouse effect

Gases like CO2 and methane trap sun’s radiation and don’t allow it to go back. This causes warming of atmosphere. This effect is called greenhouse effect.

Question 6. What are suspended particulate matter?
Answer:

Suspended particulate matter

The particulate pollutants of the air are also known as suspended particulate matter or SPM, which consists of soot (black powdered substance produced on burning of coal, wood, etc.), smoke, fly ash and dust.

NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Question And Answers

Question 7. Name the three types of air pollution.
Answer:

Three types of air pollution

The three types of water pollution are surface water or inland, underground water and marine water pollution.

Question 8. What do you understand by the term bioaccumulation?
Answer:

Bioaccumulation

It is used for storage of pollutants in the body tissues of humans and animals (fats, kidney, bone, etc.) at a higher concentration than found in the environment.

Question 9. What is soil erosion?
Answer:

Soil erosion

The removal of top soil by air and wind water is called soil erosion.

Question 10. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?
Answer:

The methods to reduce soil erosion are as follows

  • Soil should have some vegetations like grass growing on it, so that it does not get carried away by rain water or wind.
  • Afforestation or planting of trees, so that roots hold the soil and prevent soil erosion.

Question 11. Discuss the various sources of soil pollution.
Answer:

Various sources of soil pollution

  • Pulp and paper mills.
  • Sugar mills
  • Oil refineries and power plants.
  • Domestic wastes (food scraps, cans, rags, ash, broken gadgets, etc.).

Question 12. What do you understand by soil profile?
Answer:

Soil profile

It represents the vertical section of the crust of the earth. It comprises of subsequent horizontal layers known as horizons. These horizons can be distinguished on the basis of colour, texture, thickness, structure, porosity, acidity, consistency and composition.

Question 13. What is weathering?
Answer:

Weathering

The process of breakdown of huge rocks into smaller particles is known as weathering.

Question 14. What is paedogenesis?
Answer:

Paedogenesis

This process results in the humification and mineralization due to breakdown of organic matter because of the decomposition of microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.

Question 15. What is biological weathering?
Answer:

Biological weathering

The breakdown of complex substances by living organisms, such as lichens and bryophytes is termed as biological weathering.

Question 16. What is the ozone layer?
Answer:

Ozone layer

The part of the atmosphere rich in ozone concentration is known as the ozone layer, ozonosphere or ozone shield.

Question 17. What do you understand by the term biogeochemical?
Answer:

Biogeochemical

The term ‘biogeochemical’ is described as the uptake of nutrient elements from the surface of the earth by living organisms to perform vital functions such as growth and metabolism.

Question 18. What are greenhouse gases?
Answer:

Greenhouse gases

Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, ozone and chlorofluorocarbons.

Question 19. What is the global water cycle?
Answer:

Global water cycle

Water from water bodies evaporates to form clouds which are blown over the land through winds. The collected water gets evaporated again from the reservoirs or ground to form through evaporation. The repeated cycle completes the global water cycle.

Question 20. What is nitrogen fixation?
Answer:

Nitrogen fixation

The process of conversion is carried out either by industrial nitrogen fixation or nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. These organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates, which is the water-soluble form of nitrogen. This process of fixation is termed as nitrogen fixation.

NEET Biology Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Question And Answers

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NEET Biology  Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Question And Answers

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits, and vegetables?
Answer: Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy. Pulses give proteins that build our body. Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals.

Question 2. Before cultivating a crop variety, a farmer goes through several steps. Discuss the steps.
Answer: The first step is the choice of seeds for planting. The second is the nurturing of the crop plants and the third is the protection of the growing and harvested crops from loss.

NEET Biology Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Question And Answers

Question 3. Discuss the three methods that how crop yield can be improved.
Answer:

For improving crop yields from such deterioration, three methods can be applied:

  • Crop variety improvement through genetic manipulation.
  • Crop production management.
  • Crop protection management.

Question 4. What is green revolution and who is the ‘Father of Green Revolution’? 
Answer:

Green revolution

Green Revolution deals with the high production of food grains. Dr. Swaminathan is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution’.

Question 5. Discuss the characteristics and features of Kharif and Rabi crops.
Answer:

NEET Biology Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Characteristics Features Kharif And Rabi Crops

NEET Chemistry Chapter 3 Atoms And Molecules Question And Answers

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NEET Chemistry Chapter 3 Atoms And Molecules Question And Answers

Question 1. Name two elements which exists independently.
Answer.

Helium and neon are two elements which exists independently.

Question 2. Define an atom.
Answer.

Atom:

An atom is the smallest unit of matter which has the chemical properties of the element.

Question 3. What is atomic mass?
Answer.

Atomic Mass:

The amount of the total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called atomic mass.

NEET Chemistry Chapter 3 Atoms And Molecules Question And Answers

Question 4. Define valency.
Answer.

Valency:

Valency is a tendency in an atom to achieve the state of stability by achieving 8 electrons in its outermost shell by receiving, leaving or sharing of electrons from other atoms.

Question 5. What are homonuclear molecules?
Answer.

Homonuclear molecules:

Homonuclear molecules are those molecules in which same type of atoms are present.

Example H2, Cl2 etc.

Question 6. What are heteronuclear molecules?
Answer.

Heteronuclear Molecules:

Heteronuclear molecules are those molecules in which different type of atoms are present.

Example, H2O, CO2 etc.

Question 7. What are polyatomic ions?
Answer.

Polyatomic ions:

A group of atoms that carry a charge is called polyatomic ion. Example NH4+, CO32- etc.

Question 8. Why were the rehabilitation centres and health spas made in forest areas?
Answer.

The forests besides giving fresh and unpolluted air, also naturally provide negative ions which neutralises the harmful effects of positive ions.

Question 9. What does a chemical formula tell us about?
Answer.

Chemical formula:

A chemical formula tells us about the elements present in a compound along with their number.

Question 10. State the chemical formula of the compound formed between Hydrogen and Sulphur.
Answer.

Chemical formula of the compound formed between Hydrogen and Sulphur:

Valency of Hydrogen = 1

Valency of Sulphur = 2

Compound of Hydrogen and Sulphur = H2S

Question 11. An element ‘A’ forms a compound A2O3. What according to you is the valency of A?
Answer.

An element ‘A’ forms a compound A2O3.

The valency of A will be 3.

Question 12. An element has a valency of 2. What will be the formula for its oxide?
Answer.

An element has a valency of 2.

Valency of the element (X) = 2

Valency of Oxygen = 2

Formula for its oxide = XO