The post NEET Foundation Solutions appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. A science student was viewing a rose plant cell through an electron microscope, where the student observed the presence of a hard rigid wall and a very thin delicate wall in the cell enclosing the cytoplasm.

How can we call that thin delicate wall?

1. Cell wall
2. Middle lamella
3. Plasma membrane
4. Nuclear membrane

Answer. 3. Plasma membrane

Question 2. Gaseous exchange in amoeba takes place through

1. Osmosis
2. Photosynthesis
3. Diffusion
4. Exosmosis

Answer. 3. Diffusion

Question 3. In ______, permease assists a molecule to diffuse through the membrane that it cannot penetrate alone.

1. Facilitated transport or diffusion
2. Active diffusion
3. Osmosis
4. Pinocytosis

Answer. 1. Facilitated transport or diffusion

Question 4. Name the ‘energy currency of the cell’.

1. GTP
2. ATP
3. DTP
4. ADP

Answer. 2. ATP

Question 5. Phagocytosis is

1. Cell eating
2. Cell drinking
3. Cell death
4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 1. Cell eating

Question 6. Pinocytosis is

1. Cell eating
2. Cell drinking
3. Cell death
4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 2. Cell drinking

Question 7. Exocytosis is

1. Cell eating
2. Cell drinking
3. Cell death
4. Cell vomiting

Answer. 4. Cell vomiting

Question 8. The cell wall consists of minute cellulose fibres called

1. Microfibrils
2. Microsomes
3. Microtubules
4. Microns

Answer. 1. Microfibrils

Question 9. Name the ’protein factories of a cell’.

1. Peroxisomes
2. Lysosomes
3. Ribosomes
4. Nucleus

Answer. 3. Ribosomes

Question 10. Genes are the discrete segments of

1. RNA
2. ATP
3. mRNA
4. DNA

Answer. 4. DNA

Question 11. ______ provides a specific shape to the chromosomes owing to its position.

1. Centromere
2. Centriole
3. Peroxisome
4. Oxysome

Answer. 1. Centromere

Question 12. Human beings have ______ pairs of chromosomes.

1. 21
2. 22
3. 23
4. 46

Answer. 3. 23

Question 13. Diffusion is fastest in

1. Solid phase
2. Liquid phase
3. Semi-solid phase
4. Gaseous phase

Answer. 4. Gaseous phase

Question 14. What will happen when a cell is kept in an isotonic solution?

1. Shape of the cell changes.
2. Size of the cell remains the same.
3. Will shrink
4. Will swell

Answer. 2. Size of the cell remains the same.

Question 15. The process of withdrawal of water from a cell through osmosis is called

1. Endosmosis
2. Exosmosis
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these

Answer. 2. Exosmosis

Question 16. When exosmosis occurs in a plant cell, it is

1. Plasmolysed
2. Re-plasmolysed
3. Non-plasmolysed
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Plasmolysed

Question 17. Transport of substances across the plasmalemma against the concentration gradient is

1. Active transport
2. Passive transport
3. Bulk transport
4. All of these

Answer. 1. Active transport

Question 18. Unicellular freshwater animals and most plant cells tend to gain water through the process of

1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Imbibition
4. Facilitated diffusion

Answer. 3. Imbibition

Question 19. Fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane was given by

1. Schleiden and Schwann
2. Singer and Nicolson
3. Knoll and Ruska
4. Huxley

Answer. 2. Singer and Nicolson

Question 20. The phenomenon by which protoplast of a cell shrinks from the wall is called

1. Osmosis
2. Plasmolysis
3. Diffusion
4. Glycolysis

Answer. 2. Plasmolysis

Question 21. Which of the following organelle is known as ‘suicidal bags’?

1. Peroxisomes
2. Lysosomes
3. Endosomes
4. Vacuoles

Answer. 2. Lysosomes

Question 22. Name the ‘powerhouse of the cell’.

1. Chloroplast
2. Chromoplast
3. Mitochondrion
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer. 3. Mitochondrion

Question 23. In plant cells, Golgi apparatus is known as

1. Dictyosomes
2. Autosomes
3. Oxisomes
4. Golgi bodies

Answer. 1. Dictyosomes

Question 24. Light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in which part of chloroplast?

1. Stroma
2. Grana
3. Cristae
4. F1 particles

Answer. 2. Grana

Question 25. ______ serve as osmoregulatory organelles in protozoans.

1. Vacuoles
2. Vesicles
3. Lumen
4. Saccules

Answer. 1. Vacuoles

Question 26. Which one of the following has its own DNA?

1. Mitochondria
2. Dictyosome
3. Lysosome
4. Peroxisome

Answer. 1. Mitochondria

Question 27. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

1. Plasma membrane
2. Mitochondrion
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleus

Answer. 3. Cytoplasm

Question 28. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

1. Outer membrane
2. Inner membrane
3. Intermembrane space
4. Matrix

Answer. 3. Intermembrane space

Question 29. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endo-membrane system?

1. Golgi complex
2. Peroxisome
3. Vacuole
4. Lysosome

Answer. 2. Peroxisome

Question 30. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Euglena viridis
3. Amoeba proteus
4. Paramecium caudatum

Answer. 1. Escherichia coli

Question 31. Which of the following can be made into crystal?

1. A bacterium
2. An amoeba
3. A virus
4. A sperm

Answer. 3. A virus

Question 32. A cell will swell up if

1. The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium.
2. The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.
3. The concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium.
4. Concentration of water molecules does not matter.

Answer. 2. The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.

Question 33. Chromosomes are made up of

1. DNA
2. Protein
3. DNA and protein
4. RNA

Answer. 3. DNA and protein

Question 34. Which of these options are not a function of ribosomes?

(1) It helps in the manufacture of protein molecules.

(2) It helps in the manufacture of enzymes.

(3) It helps in the manufacture of hormones.

(4) It helps in the manufacture of starch molecules.

1. (1) and (2)
2. (2) and (3)
3. (3) and (4)
4. (4) and (1)

Answer. 3. (3) and (4)

Question 35. Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum?

1. It behaves as transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm.
2. It transports materials between various regions in cytoplasm.
3. It can be the site of energy generation.
4. It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell.

Answer. 3. It can be the site of energy generation.

Question 36. Following are a few definitions of osmosis, soread carefully and select the correct definition.

1. Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
2. Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration.
3. Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration of solution through a permeable membrane.
4. Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration of solution through a semipermeable membrane.

Answer. 1. Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.

Question 37. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as

1. Breakdown (lysis) of plasma membrane in hypotonic medium.
2. Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.
3. Shrinkage of nucleoplasm
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.

Question 38. Which of the following is covered by a single membrane?

1. Mitochondria
2. Vacuole
3. Lysosome
4. Plastid

Answer. 2. Vacuole

Question 39. Find out the false sentence.

1. Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.
2. Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA and hence, they are able to make their own structural proteins.
3. Mitochondria is said to be the power house of the cell as ATP is generated in them.
4. Cytoplasm is known as protoplasm.

Answer. 1. Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.

Question 40. Find out the correct sentence.

1. Enzymes packed in lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein, respectively.
3. Endoplasmic reticulum is related with the destruction of plasma membrane.
4. Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus.

Answer. 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein, respectively.

Question 41. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?

1. Golgi apparatus
2. Lysosomes
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Vacuoles

Answer. 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 42. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane are manufactured by

1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 43. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes are also known as

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleolus
3. Nucleic acid
4. Nucleoid

Answer. 4. Nucleoid

Question 44. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Ribosomes
3. Plastids
4. Golgi apparatus

Answer. 4. Golgi apparatus

Question 45. Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?

1. Storage
2. Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell.
3. Waste excretion
4. Locomotion

Answer. 4. Locomotion

Question 46. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed as

1. Exocytosis
2. Endocytosis
3. Plasmolysis
4. Exocytosis and endocytosis

Answer. 2. Endocytosis

Question 47. The cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?

1. Bacteria
2. Hydrilla
3. Mango tree
4. Cactus

Answer. 1. Bacteria

Question 48. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Nucleus
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Golgi apparatus

Question 49. Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosome

Answer. 3. Mitochondria

Question 50. Kitchen of the cell is

1. Mitochondria
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Chloroplast
4. Golgi apparatus

Answer. 3. Chloroplast

Question 51. Lipid molecules in the cell are sythesized by

1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Plastids

Answer. 1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 52. Cell arising from pre-existing cell was stated by

1. Haeckel
2. Virchow
3. Hooke
4. Schleiden

Answer. 2. Virchow

Question 53. Cell theory was given by

1. Schleiden and Schwann
2. Virchow
3. Hooke
4. Haeckel

Answer. 1. Schleiden and Schwann

Question 54. The only cell organelle seen in prokaryotic cell is

1. Mitochondria
2. Ribosomes
3. Plastids
4. Lysosomes

Answer. 2. Ribosomes

Question 55. Organelle without a cell membrane is

1. Ribosome
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Chloroplast
4. Nucleus

Answer. 1. Ribosome

Question 56. 1 μm is

1. 10^-6 m
2. 10^-9 m
3. 10^-10 m
4. 10^-3 m

Answer. 1. 10^-6 m

Question 57. Lysosome arises from

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Nucleus
4. Mitochondria

Answer. 2. Golgi apparatus

Question 58. Living cells were discovered by

1. Robert Hooke
2. Purkinje
3. Leeuwenhoek
4. Robert Brown

Answer. 3. Leeuwenhoek

Question 59. Select the odd one out from the following.

1. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances dissolved in it.
2. Membranes are made of organic molecules like proteins and lipids.
3. Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
4. Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.

Answer. 4. Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.

The post NEET Biology Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit Of Life Multiple Choice Questions appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. What is the difference between speed and velocity?
Answer:

Difference between speed and velocity

The distance travelled per second by a body is called speed. It is a scalar quantity. It does not tell the direction of motion. Speed is always positive and value of average speed is never zero.

While distance travelled per second by the moving object in the specified direction is called velocity. It is a vector quantity. Velocity tells us the speed as well as direction of motion. It can be positive as well as negative. The average velocity can be zero.

Question 2. Differentiate between acceleration and retardation.
Answer:

Difference between acceleration and retardation

The rate of change of velocity with respect to time is called acceleration. While decrease in velocity per unit time is called retardation.

Question 3. How uniform acceleration different than variable acceleration?
Answer: When equal change in velocity takes place in equal interval of time, then it is called uniform acceleration. If the change in velocity is not same in the same interval of time, then it is called variable acceleration.

Question 4. Define acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:

Acceleration due to gravity

When an object falls freely, the acceleration produced in the body due to Earth’s gravitational attraction is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by letter g is its value is 9.8 m/s2.

Question 5. What does the slope of distance-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of distance-time graph denote

The slope of distance-time graph denotes the magnitude of speed.

Question 6. What does the slope of the velocity-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of velocity-time graph denote:

The slope of velocity-time graph denotes the magnitude of acceleration.

Question 7. What does the slope of displacement-time graph denote?
Answer:

The slope of the displacement-time graph denotes:

The slope of the displacement-time graph denotes the magnitude of velocity.

Question 8. What does the area enclosed under the velocity-time graph denote?
Answer:

The area enclosed under velocity-time graph denote:

The area enclosed under the velocity-time graph denotes the magnitude of displacement.

Question 9. Write all three equations of motion.
Answer:

There are three equations of motion.

The expression for the first equation of motion is:

v = u + at

The expression for a second equation of motion is:

S = ut + 1/2 at²

The expression for a third equation of motion is:

v² – u² = 2aS

Where, u = Initial velocity, v = final velocity, a = acceleration S = distance travelled

Question 10. Define uniform circular motion.
Answer:

Uniform circular motion:

If an object is moving with a velocity of constant magnitude on a circular path, then its motion is known as uniform circular motion.

Question 11. A car runs at a uniform speed of 70 km/hr from Bangalore to Mysore in 2 hours. Find the distance between two cities.
Answer: 140 km

Question 12. Rita goes to the market, which is 10 km away from her home. She travelled back 5 km in the opposite direction and stopped at the park. What is the total distance travelled and her displacement?
Answer: Displacement = 5 m Distance = 15 m

Question 13. Rahul initially at rest runs with a constant acceleration of 5 ms-2. He travels a distance of 10 m. Calculate the final velocity and time taken.
Answer: V = 10 m/s, t = 2 s

Question 14. Write all the three equations of motion.
Answer:

There are three equations of motion.

The expression for first equation of motion is:

v = u + at

The expression for second equation of motion is:

S = ut + 1/2 at²

The expression for third equation of motion is:

v² – u² = 2aS

Where, u = Initial velocity, v = final velocity, a = acceleration S = distance travelled

Question 15. Define uniform circular motion.
Answer:

Uniform circular motion:

If an object is moving with velocity of constant magnitude on a circular path, then its motion is known as uniform circular motion.

The post NEET Physics Chapter 1 Motion Question And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. Define sound.
Answer:

Sound:

A sound is a form of energy that propagates from one place to another through a medium.

Question 2. How is the sound produced?
Answer:

Sound is produced when an object vibrates. Vibration is the rapid to and fro motion of an object.

Question 3. Sound is a form of energy. Explain.
Answer:

Sound is a form of energy:

Mechanical energy is required to start vibrations in an object producing sound. The vibrations of objects are transmitted in a medium in waveforms from one point to the next and so on. These waves on reaching our ears produce vibrations in the eardrum which are perceived as sound by us. Thus, sound is a form of energy.

Question 4. Sound cannot be produced in a body if it’s not vibrating. (True/False)
Answer. True

Question 1. Describe various uses of multiple reflections of sound.
Answer:

Various uses of multiple reflections of sound:

Multiple reflections of sound are used to measure the depth of the sea or ocean. It is also used to detect the position of objects for example sea rocks, hidden icebergs in the sea, and ocean shipwrecks. It is also used to investigate problems inside the human body.

Question 5. What is the range of hearing of a human being?
Answer:

Range of hearing of human being:

The range of hearing of a human being is the sound of frequency between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Question 6. Define infrasonic and ultrasonic sounds.
Answer:

Infrasonic and ultrasonic sounds:

The sound of frequency less than 20 Hz is called infrasonic sound while the sound of frequency greater than 20 kHz is called ultrasonic sound.

Question 7. What are the additional properties of ultrasound?
Answer:

The additional properties carried by ultrasound are:

• The energy carried is very high.
• It can travel along a well-defined straight path. It does not bend appreciably at the edges of the obstacle because of its small wavelength.

Question 8. What are the various applications of ultrasound?
Answer:

The various applications of ultrasound are:

• Bats avoid obstacles in their path by producing and hearing the ultrasound.
• It is used in drilling holes and making cuts of desired shape in the glass.
• It is used in cleaning very small objects like parts of watches or other electronic items.
• It is used for the detection of defects in the metals.
• It is widely used for imaging of human organs.
• It is used in human surgery to remove cataracts and in kidneys to break the stone into fine grains.
• It is used in SONAR (Sound navigation and ranging)

Question 9. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. What is the velocity of sound waves?
Answer. 1000 m/s

Question 10. The period of a vibrating body is 0.05  s. What is the frequency of waves that it emits?
Answer. 20 Hz

Question 11. A bat can hear the sound of frequencies up to 120 kHz. Determine the minimum wavelength of sound that it can hear. The speed of sound in air is 344 m/s.
Answer. 2.867 x 10^-3 m

Question 12. A wave pulse of frequency 200 Hz, on a string, moves a distance of 8 m in 0.05 s. Calculate the wavelength of the wave on a string.
Answer. 0.8 m

Question 13. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s and the frequency is 256 Hz. What will be the wavelength?
Answer. 1.25 m

The post NEET Physics Chapter 5 Sound Questions And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. An inexhaustible resource is ______.

1. Soil
2. Minerals
3. Solar energy
4. Fossil fuels

Answer. 3. Solar energy

Question 2. Which of the following(s) is a constituent of SPM?

1. Dust
2. Smoke and soot
3. Fly ash
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 3. Air is a mixture of

1. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon monoxide, water vapour
2. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, oxygen, carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen, oxygen, methane, carbon dioxide
4. Nitrogen, oxygen, water vapour, carbon dioxide

Answer. 4. Nitrogen, oxygen, water vapour, carbon dioxide

Question 4. Green plants in an ecosystem are referred to as

1. Consumer
2. Producer
3. Decomposer
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Producer

Question 5. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

1. Soil
2. Minerals
3. Forests
4. Underground water

Answer. 4. Underground water

Question 6. Greenhouse gases are caused by which of the following?

1. Industries
2. Rhizobium
3. Lightening
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 7.  Nitrogen fixation can be done by which of the following?

1. Industries
2. Rhizobium
3. Lightening
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 8. On moon, the temperature ranges from –190° C to 110° C. This effect occurs due to which of the following?

1. No water bodies present
2. Water bodies present.
3. No biogeochemical cycle.
4. No atmosphere

Answer. 4. No atmosphere

Question 9. Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to which of the following?

1. Chlorine compound
2. Fluorine compound
3. Halogen compound
4. None of these

Answer. 3. Halogen compound

Question 10. According to central pollution control board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of the diameter

1. 2.50 µm
2. 5.00 µm
3. 10.00 µm
4. 7.5 µm

Answer. 1. 2.50 µm

Question 11. Metal generally present in polluted air is

1. cadmium
2. lead
3. mercury
4. zinc

Answer. 2. lead

Question 12. Pollutants emitted by jet aeroplanes in outer atmosphere fluorocarbon are known as

1. smog
2. photochemical oxidants
3. aerosols
4. loess

Answer. 3. aerosols

Question 13. Acid rain is rainfall with a pH of

1. 7
2. 6.56
3. 5.65
4. 11

Answer. 3. 5.65

Question 14. Algal bloom in a lake

1. increases the carbon dioxide level
2. leads to oxygen depletion
3. kills fishes
4. all of these

Answer. 4. all of these

Question 15. Water pollution is best assessed by determining the

1. DO
2. BOD and turbidity.
3. DO and acidity.
4. hardness and alkalinity.

Answer. 2. BOD and turbidity.

Question 16. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for the occurrence of soil erosion?

1. Dust storm
2. Heavy rains
3. Cyclones
4. Flood

Answer. 3. Cyclones

Question 17. Which of the following is not a property of alluvial soil?

1. Layered
2. Contains smooth round particles
3. Rich in humus
4. Suitable for growing pulses

Answer. 4. Suitable for growing pulses

Question 18. Measurement of clay particles in soil is about ___________.

1. 0.5 mm
2. 0.05 mm
3. 5 mm
4. 50 mm

Answer. 2. 0.05 mm

Question 19. The breakdown of complex substances by living organisms, such as lichens and bryophytes is termed as

1. biological weathering
2. chemical weathering
3. physical weathering
4. paedogenesis

Answer. 4. paedogenesis

Question 20. Which of the following is not an effect of ozone depletion?

1. Skin cancer
2. Poor digestion
3. Damage to eyes
4. Damages immune system

Answer. 2. Poor digestion

Question 21. Cycling materials are stored in reservoirs or sinks and become unavailable to living organisms, this process is called

1. organic sink
2. inorganic sink
3. carbon sink
4. phosphorus sink

Answer. 3. carbon sink

Question 22. What is the percentage of oxygen in air?

1. 29
2. 71
3. 46
4. 21

Answer. 4. 21

Question 23. Which of the following is the role of azotobacter in the soil?

1. Nitrogen fixation
2. Ammonification
3. Nitrification
4. Denitrification

Answer. 1. Nitrogen fixation

The post NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. Sponges belong to which of the following phylum?

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 1. Porifera

Question 2. Corals belong to which of the following phylum?

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 2. Cnidaria

Question 3. In which of the phylum, two tentacles and eight longitudinal rows of ciliary comb plates for locomotion are there?

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 3. Ctenophora

Question 4. Flatworms are included in which of the following phylum?

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes

Answer. 4. Platyhelminthes

Question 5. Which phylum of animals is also called flatworms?

1. Porifera
2. Coelenterata
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Nematoda

Answer. 3. Platyhelminthes

Question 6. What does arthropod means?

1. Bony legs
2. Cartilaginous legs
3. Largest legs
4. Jointed legs

Answer. 4. Jointed legs

Question 7. What is not poisoning among these?

1. Scorpion
2. Centipede
3. Spider
4. Crab

Answer. 4. Crab

Question 8. The excretory system in annelids consist of tubes called

1. flame cells
2. metanephridia
3. nephridia
4. protonephridia

Answer. 3. nephridia

Question 9. In which organism flame cells form the excretory system?

1. Flatworms
2. Earthworms
3. Insects
4. Crabs

Answer. 1. Flatworms

Question 10. Which of the following are found filamentous?

1. Spirogyra
2. Euglena
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Amoeba

Answer. 1. Spirogyra

Question 11. Find out the incorrect statement from the following.

1. Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
2. Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition for classifying the organisms in five kingdoms.
3. Both Monera and Protista may be autotrophic and heterotrophic.
4. Monerans have well-defined nucleus.

Answer. 4. Monerans have well-defined nucleus.

Question 12. Which among the following has specialized tissue for conduction of water?

(1) Thallophyta

(2) Bryophyta

(3) Pteridophyta

(4) Gymnosperms

1. (1) and (2)
2. (2) and (3)
3. (3) and (4)
4. (1) and (4)

Answer. 3. (3) and (4)

Question 13. Which among the following produce seeds?

1. Thallophyta
2. Bryophyta
3. Pteridophyta
4. Gymnosperms

Answer. 4. Gymnosperms

Question 14. Which one of the following is a true fish?

1. Jellyfish
2. Starfish
3. Dogfish
4. Silverfish

Answer. 3. Dogfish

Question 15. Which among the following is exclusively marine?

1. Porifera
2. Echinodermata
3. Mollusca
4. Pisces

Answer. 2. Echinodermata

Question 16. Which among the following have open circulatory system?

(1) Arthropoda

(2) Mollusca

(3) Annelida

(4) Coelenterata

1. (1) and (2)
2. (3) and (4)
3. (1) and (3)
4. (2) and (4)

Answer. 1. (1) and (2)

Question 17. In which group of animals, coelom is filled with blood?

1. Arthropoda
2. Annelida
3. Nematoda
4. Echinodermata

Answer. 1. Arthropoda

Question 18. Elephantiasis is caused by

1. Wuchereria
2. Pinworm
3. Planarians
4. Liver flukes

Answer. 1. Wuchereria

Question 19. Which one is the most striking or common character of the vertebrates?

1. Presence of notochord
2. Presence of triploblastic condition
3. Presence of gill pouches
4. Presence of coelom

Answer. 1. Presence of notochord

Question 20. Which among the following have scales?

(1) Amphibians

(2) Pisces

(3) Reptiles

(4) Mammals

1. (1) and (3)
2. (3) and (4)
3. (2) and (3)
4. (1) and (2)

Answer. 3. (2) and (3)

Question 21. Find out the false statement from the following.

1. Aves are warm-blooded, egg-laying, and have four-chambered hearts.
2. Aves have a feather-covered body, forelimbs are modified as wing and breathe through lungs.
3. Most of the mammals are viviparous.
4. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Answer. 4. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Question 22. Pteridophyta do not have

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Flowers
4. Leaves

Answer. 3. Flowers

Question 23. Identify a member of Porifera from the following.

1. Spongilla
2. Euglena
3. Penicillium
4. Hydra

Answer. 1. Spongilla

Question 24. Which of the following is not an aquatic animal?

1. Hydra
2. Jelly fish
3. Corals
4. Filaria

Answer. 4. Filaria

Question 25. Amphibians do not have which of the following?

1. Three-chambered heart
2. Gills or lungs
3. Scales
4. Mucus glands

Answer. 3. Scales

Question 26. Organisms without nucleus and cell organelles belong to

(1) Fungi

(2) Protista

(3) Cyanobacteria

(4) Archaebacteria

1. (1) and (2)
2. (3) and (4)
3. (1) and (4)
4. (2) and (3)

Answer. 2. (3) and (4)

Question 27. Which of the following is not a criterion for the classification of living organisms?

1. Body design of the organism.
2. Ability to produce one’s own food.
3. Membrane-bound nucleus and cell organelles.
4. Height of the plant.

Answer. 4. Height of the plant.

Question 28. Which of the following features is not a characteristic of Protochordata?

1. Presence of notochord.
2. Bilateral symmetry and coelom.
3. Jointed legs.
4. Presence of circulatory system.

Answer. 3. Jointed legs.

Question 29. Which of the following are locomotory organs of Echinodermata?

1. Tube feet
2. Muscular feet
3. Jointed legs
4. Parapodia

Answer. 1. Tube feet

Question 30. Corals are

1. Poriferans attached to some solid support.
2. Cnidarians are solitary living.
3. Poriferans are present at the sea bed.
4. Cnidarians that live in colonies.

Answer. 4. Cnidarians that live in colonies.

Question 31. Who introduced the system of scientific nomenclature of organisms?

1. Robert Whittaker
2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Robert Hooke
4. Ernst Haeckel

Answer. 2. Carolus Linnaeus

Question 32. Two-chambered heart occurs in which of the following animals?

1. Crocodiles
2. Fish
3. Aves
4. Amphibians

Answer. 2. Fish

Question 33. The skeleton is made entirely of cartilage in which of the following animals?

1. Sharks
2. Tuna
3. Rohu
4. None of these

Answer. 1. Sharks

Question 34. Which one of the following is not an annelid?

1. Nereis
2. Earthworm
3. Leech
4. Urchins

Answer. 4. Urchins

Question 35. The book Systema Naturae was written by

1. Linnaeus
2. Haeckel
3. Whittaker
4. Robert Brown

Answer. 1. Linnaeus

Question 36. Carl von Linnaeus was involved with which branch of science?

1. Morphology
2. Taxonomy
3. Physiology
4. Medicine

Answer. 2. Taxonomy

Question 37. Real organs are absent in which of the following?

1. Mollusca
2. Coelenterata
3. Arthropoda
4. Echinodermata

Answer. 2. Coelenterata

Question 38. Hard calcium carbonate structures are used as skeletons by which of the following?

1. Echinodermata
2. Protochordate
3. Arthropoda
4. Nematoda

Answer. 1. Echinodermata

Question 39. Differentiation in segmental fashion occurs in which of the following?

1. Leech
2. Starfish
3. Snails
4. Ascaris

Answer. 1. Leech

Question 40. In a taxonomic hierarchy, family comes between which of the following?

1. Class and Order
2. Order and Genus
3. Genus and Species
4. Division and Class

Answer. 2. Order and Genus

Question 41. The five-kingdom classification was given by

1. Morgan
2. R. Whittaker
3. Linnaeus
4. Haeckel

Answer. 2. R. Whittaker

Question 42. A well-defined nucleus is absent in

1. blue-green algae
2. diatoms
3. algae
4. yeast

Answer. 1. blue-green algae

Question 43. The book ‘Origin of Species’ was written by

1. Linnaeus
2. Darwin
3. Hackel
4. Whittaker

Answer. 2. Darwin

The post NEET Biology Chapter 3 Diversity In Living Organisms Multiple Choice Questions appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?
Answer:

The major sources of water are as follows.

• Water in the form of snow, ice-covered mountains.
• Underground water well.
• Surface water like in lakes, rivers, ponds.
• Rainfall.
• Stored rain water in tanks, dams.

Question 2. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?
Answer: Yes, the water is polluted by (a) sewage (b) dumping waste in river, (c) factory waste, etc.

Question 3. Why do organisms need water?
Answer:

Organisms need water for the following activities.

• All cellular processes occur due to water.
• Transportation of substances in our body takes place by dissolving in water.
• Terrestrial animals require fresh water for transportation of minerals and for getting rid of waste from their body.
• Plants require water for photosynthesis.

Question 4. Why is water essential for life?
Answer:

• About 70% weight of human being is due to water.
• All cellular processes takes place in water as medium.
• All reactions takes place within our body and within the cells occur between substances that are dissolved in water.
• Tansportation of substances from one form to another takes place due to water.
• Terrestrial life forms require fresh water for the transportation of substances and to get rid of high amounts of wastes.

Question 5. What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer:

Greenhouse effect

Gases like CO₂ and methane trap sun’s radiation and don’t allow it to go back. This causes warming of atmosphere. This effect is called greenhouse effect.

Question 6. What are suspended particulate matter?
Answer:

Suspended particulate matter

The particulate pollutants of the air are also known as suspended particulate matter or SPM, which consists of soot (black powdered substance produced on burning of coal, wood, etc.), smoke, fly ash and dust.

Question 7. Name the three types of air pollution.
Answer:

Three types of air pollution

The three types of water pollution are surface water or inland, underground water and marine water pollution.

Question 8. What do you understand by the term bioaccumulation?
Answer:

Bioaccumulation

It is used for storage of pollutants in the body tissues of humans and animals (fats, kidney, bone, etc.) at a higher concentration than found in the environment.

Question 9. What is soil erosion?
Answer:

Soil erosion

The removal of top soil by air and wind water is called soil erosion.

Question 10. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?
Answer:

The methods to reduce soil erosion are as follows

• Soil should have some vegetations like grass growing on it, so that it does not get carried away by rain water or wind.
• Afforestation or planting of trees, so that roots hold the soil and prevent soil erosion.

Question 11. Discuss the various sources of soil pollution.
Answer:

Various sources of soil pollution

• Pulp and paper mills.
• Sugar mills
• Oil refineries and power plants.
• Domestic wastes (food scraps, cans, rags, ash, broken gadgets, etc.).

Question 12. What do you understand by soil profile?
Answer:

Soil profile

It represents the vertical section of the crust of the earth. It comprises of subsequent horizontal layers known as horizons. These horizons can be distinguished on the basis of colour, texture, thickness, structure, porosity, acidity, consistency and composition.

Question 13. What is weathering?
Answer:

Weathering

The process of breakdown of huge rocks into smaller particles is known as weathering.

Question 14. What is paedogenesis?
Answer:

Paedogenesis

This process results in the humification and mineralization due to breakdown of organic matter because of the decomposition of microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.

Question 15. What is biological weathering?
Answer:

Biological weathering

The breakdown of complex substances by living organisms, such as lichens and bryophytes is termed as biological weathering.

Question 16. What is the ozone layer?
Answer:

Ozone layer

The part of the atmosphere rich in ozone concentration is known as the ozone layer, ozonosphere or ozone shield.

Question 17. What do you understand by the term biogeochemical?
Answer:

Biogeochemical

The term ‘biogeochemical’ is described as the uptake of nutrient elements from the surface of the earth by living organisms to perform vital functions such as growth and metabolism.

Question 18. What are greenhouse gases?
Answer:

Greenhouse gases

Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, ozone and chlorofluorocarbons.

Question 19. What is the global water cycle?
Answer:

Global water cycle

Water from water bodies evaporates to form clouds which are blown over the land through winds. The collected water gets evaporated again from the reservoirs or ground to form through evaporation. The repeated cycle completes the global water cycle.

Question 20. What is nitrogen fixation?
Answer:

Nitrogen fixation

The process of conversion is carried out either by industrial nitrogen fixation or nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. These organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates, which is the water-soluble form of nitrogen. This process of fixation is termed as nitrogen fixation.

The post NEET Biology Chapter 5 Natural Resources Question And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits, and vegetables?
Answer: Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy. Pulses give proteins that build our body. Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals.

Question 2. Before cultivating a crop variety, a farmer goes through several steps. Discuss the steps.
Answer: The first step is the choice of seeds for planting. The second is the nurturing of the crop plants and the third is the protection of the growing and harvested crops from loss.

Question 3. Discuss the three methods that how crop yield can be improved.
Answer:

For improving crop yields from such deterioration, three methods can be applied:

• Crop variety improvement through genetic manipulation.
• Crop production management.
• Crop protection management.

Question 4. What is green revolution and who is the ‘Father of Green Revolution’? 
Answer:

Green revolution

Green Revolution deals with the high production of food grains. Dr. Swaminathan is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution’.

Question 5. Discuss the characteristics and features of Kharif and Rabi crops.
Answer:

The post NEET Biology Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Question And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. Name two elements which exists independently.
Answer.

Helium and neon are two elements which exists independently.

Question 2. Define an atom.
Answer.

Atom:

An atom is the smallest unit of matter which has the chemical properties of the element.

Question 3. What is atomic mass?
Answer.

Atomic Mass:

The amount of the total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called atomic mass.

Question 4. Define valency.
Answer.

Valency:

Valency is a tendency in an atom to achieve the state of stability by achieving 8 electrons in its outermost shell by receiving, leaving or sharing of electrons from other atoms.

Question 5. What are homonuclear molecules?
Answer.

Homonuclear molecules:

Homonuclear molecules are those molecules in which same type of atoms are present.

Example H₂, Cl₂ etc.

Question 6. What are heteronuclear molecules?
Answer.

Heteronuclear Molecules:

Heteronuclear molecules are those molecules in which different type of atoms are present.

Example, H₂O, CO₂ etc.

Question 7. What are polyatomic ions?
Answer.

Polyatomic ions:

A group of atoms that carry a charge is called polyatomic ion. Example NH4⁺, CO₃^2- etc.

Question 8. Why were the rehabilitation centres and health spas made in forest areas?
Answer.

The forests besides giving fresh and unpolluted air, also naturally provide negative ions which neutralises the harmful effects of positive ions.

Question 9. What does a chemical formula tell us about?
Answer.

Chemical formula:

A chemical formula tells us about the elements present in a compound along with their number.

Question 10. State the chemical formula of the compound formed between Hydrogen and Sulphur.
Answer.

Chemical formula of the compound formed between Hydrogen and Sulphur:

Valency of Hydrogen = 1

Valency of Sulphur = 2

Compound of Hydrogen and Sulphur = H₂S

Question 11. An element ‘A’ forms a compound A₂O₃. What according to you is the valency of A?
Answer.

An element ‘A’ forms a compound A₂O₃.

The valency of A will be 3.

Question 12. An element has a valency of 2. What will be the formula for its oxide?
Answer.

An element has a valency of 2.

Valency of the element (X) = 2

Valency of Oxygen = 2

Formula for its oxide = XO

The post NEET Chemistry Chapter 3 Atoms And Molecules Question And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.

Question 1. Define atomic number.
Answer.

Atomic Number:

The atomic number is the number of protons in an atom of an element.

Question 2. Define atomic mass.
Answer.

Atomic Mass:

The atomic weight measures the total number of particles present in an atom’s nucleus. The nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons. So,

Mass number = (Number of Protons) + (Number of Neutrons)

Question 3. What are canal rays?
Answer.

Canal Rays:

These positively charged radiations are produced in discharge tubes from the anode called canal rays.

Question 4. What is the relative mass of a neutron?
Answer.

Relative mass of neutron:

A neutron is 1842 times heavier than an electron.

Question 5. Define nucleon.
Answer.

Nucleon:

A nucleon is a sub-atomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.

Question 6. What are the limitations of Thomson’s plum pudding model?
Answer.

The limitations of Thomson’s plum pudding model:

• Thomson’s plum pudding model: could not explain the result of the scattering experiment performed by Rutherford.
• Thomson’s plum pudding model: did not give any experimental evidence in its support.

Question 7. What are the observations of Rutherford’s model?
Answer.

Observations of Rutherford’s Model were:

• Most of the alpha particles pass through the foil without getting deflected, which means that most of the space inside the atom is empty.
• Some of the alpha particles were deflected by a small angle, which means that the positive charge ofthe atom occupies very little space.
• Some of the alpha particles rebound back, which means the entire positive charge and mass of the atom are concentrated in a very small volume inside an atom.

Question 8. What are the limitations of the Rutherford model?
Answer.

The limitations of Rutherford’s model were:

• Rutherford proposed that the electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed paths called orbits. But according to Maxwell, an accelerated charged particle such as an electron always emits electromagnetic radiation and this radiation would carry energy from the motion of the electron which would come at the cost of shrinking of orbits. So, the electrons would collapse in the nucleus.
• Rutherford did not say anything about the arrangement of electrons in an atom.

Question 9. Define electronic configuration.
Answer.

Electronic configuration:

The electronic configuration is an arrangement of electrons in various shells of an atom of the element.

Question 10. Explain the symbol ¹⁶O₈.
Answer.

Symbol ¹⁶O₈

It shows that oxygen has a mass number of 16 and an atomic number is 8.

Question 11. Draw the electron dot structure of Chlorine (atomic number 17).
Answer.

The electron dot structure of Chlorine (atomic number 17):

Chlorine (Cl) –2, 8, 7

Question 12. How can an atom obtain a stable configuration?
Answer.

Atom can obtain a stable configuration, either by:

• Losing an electron
• Gaining an electron
• Sharing an electron

Question 13. What are valence electrons?
Answer.

Valence electrons:

Valence electrons are the electrons present in the outermost orbit of an atom, thus determining the valency of an atom.

Question 14. Why does Magnesium ion exist as Mg²⁺?
Answer.

Magnesium ion exists as Mg^2+.

Magnesium molecule has an electronic configuration 2,8,2. It has two electrons in its outermost orbit, so it requires six more electrons to complete its outermost orbit (M-shell). So, it will either donate its two electrons to another atom or share electrons from another atom just to complete its octet. Master your Test

Question 15. What approximation is taken while calculating the number of neutrons?
Answer.

Protons and neutrons have approximately the same mass and the mass defect of nucleon binding is small as compared to the nucleon mass, the atomic mass of any atom. This approximation of mass is used to calculate the number of neutrons in an element.

Question 16. The atomic number of calcium is 20. Calculate the number of electrons and protons in calcium.
Answer.

Given

An atomic number of calcium is 20.

Since, Atomic number = Number of protons = Number of electrons So, the number of electrons in calcium is = the 20Number of protons in calcium = 20

Question 17. The atomic mass of aluminum is 27 u and the atomic number is 13, find the number of protons and neutrons in aluminum.
Answer.

Given

The atomic mass of aluminium is 27 u and the atomic number is 13

Atomic number = 13

So, the number of protons = 13

Atomic mass (Mass number) = Number of protons + Number of neutrons

Let the number of neutrons be ‘n’

27 u = 13 + n

n = 27 − 13 = 14

So, number of proton = 13 and number of neutron = 14

Question 18. Define isotopes.
Answer.

Isotopes:

Isotopes are the atoms having same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, i.e., they have different atomic weights.

Question 19. List 3 applications of isotopes.
Answer.

Applications are:

• The identification of primary and secondary food sources.
• Tracing nutrient and mineral uptake by plants and animals.
• Determining the relative importance of plants and microbes to greenhouse gas emissions from soil.

Question 20. Why do radioactive elements have unstable nuclei?
Answer.

It has an unstable combination of protons and neutrons, and that is why they have an unstable nucleus.

The post NEET Physics Chapter 4 Structure Of Atom Question And Answers appeared first on CBSE School Notes.